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What is the duration, language, and format of Physical Security Professional
- Type of Questions: Multiple choice (MCQs), multiple answers
- Language of Exam: English, Japanese, Korean.
- Duration of Exam: 130 minutes
The benefit of obtaining the Physical Security Professional Certification
The security world is full of professional certifications, ranging from the plethora of initials offered by ASIS, to homeland security designations, to a fraud examiner's certification, to others related to crisis management, threat management, and even critical incident stress. Do the examination costs, recertification fees and costs, and study time make sense for security professionals to grow in their careers?
For the uninitiated, they mean nothing, other than a long string of initials behind the person's name. To other security professionals, these designations can represent a coded shorthand language that proves the long hours of study and expertise, built around years of experience, in a chosen technical or operational portion of a security career. To external clients looking to hire security consultants for site assessments, private investigations, physical security improvements, or threat assessments and management, these designations may be a required and built-in part of any Request for Proposals (RFPs) they put out.
Insurance investigators and other private investigators who work on forensic accounting or financial cases can get the Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) designation from the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners. This certification also requires education and professional requirements in accounting and auditing; criminology and sociology; fraud investigations; loss prevention; or the law, along with the completion of a challenging examination.
Some critics of this collection of designations argue that these “alphabet soup” listings are merely résumé builders that provide lucrative application, testing, and recertification fees for the association, not its members, without much real benefit. But this perspective ignores the fact that these certifications are recognized as bona fide in expert-witness court cases around the United States and the world, and they add prestige and value to the holder's professional expertise, education, and status in the security world.
NEW QUESTION # 142
As part of an initial evaluation of the significant threats or hazards to an organization, the security practitioner should:
- A. Estimate the likelihood of occurrence
- B. Estimate costs
- C. Develop a business case for additional security equipment and staff
- D. Develop a response plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
An initial threat or hazard evaluation must include an assessment of how likely each threat is to occur. This probability, when combined with impact analysis, forms the foundation for risk assessments. Understanding likelihood allows prioritization of mitigation strategies.
A (Estimate costs) and C (Develop business case) are later steps.
D (Develop response plan) comes after risk characterization.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Risk and Threat Assessment Process
POA Manual - Threat Likelihood Estimation
NEW QUESTION # 143
Security is a business unit and its function must:
- A. Support the organization's mission
- B. Be directed by a certified manager
- C. Be performed at the lowest cost
- D. Cycle on a quarterly basis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security is not a standalone function; it must align with and support the broader mission and strategic goals of the organization. This includes protecting assets, enabling business continuity, and ensuring safety in a way that complements business objectives.
A (Quarterly cycle) is not a standard requirement.
B (Certified manager) is good practice but not a defining mandate.
D (Lowest cost) is not always ideal; effectiveness and alignment are more important than minimal cost.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Role of Security in Business Operations
POA Manual - Security as a Business Function
NEW QUESTION # 144
_______________ defines the problem, set the requirements, discuss solutions and set out punishment for infractions.
- A. Forensic investigations
- B. Physical security
- C. Spam filtering
- D. Network Security Policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
A network security policy defines the scope of security measures within an organization's network. It sets the rules for behavior, outlines acceptable use, identifies protected resources, defines responses to security breaches, and lays out disciplinary measures for violations.
Physical security (A) focuses on tangible access control.
Forensic investigations (C) deal with post-incident evidence gathering.
Spam filtering (D) is a specific technical control, not a policy framework.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Information Security Governance
PSP Study Guide - Policy Development and Enforcement
NEW QUESTION # 145
A device that sends a signal about whatever is sensed to some other location is called:
- A. Line device
- B. Wave device
- C. Circuit device
- D. Signal device
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 146
The degree to which a manager or supervisor is able to delegate responsibility rather than trying to do everything personally is a good measure of managerial ability.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the key indicators of effective management is the ability to delegate responsibilities. Delegation allows managers to focus on strategic oversight rather than becoming bogged down in tasks that can be handled at lower levels. This empowers staff, improves efficiency, and enhances organizational agility.
Managers who fail to delegate often become bottlenecks, negatively impacting team performance.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Leadership and Delegation
PSP Study Guide - Security Management and Organizational Behavior
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following is NOT included in the pass systems?
- A. Single pass system
- B. Multiple pass system
- C. Pass-control system
- D. Pass-exchange system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Pass systems are security control mechanisms used to manage access to restricted or sensitive areas within a facility. The common types of pass systems include:
Single Pass System: A permanent pass assigned to the user, typically used throughout employment unless access levels change.
Multiple Pass System: Involves multiple types of passes for different access levels or time periods.
Pass-Exchange System: A system requiring the surrender or exchange of one pass for another at checkpoints or entry to more restricted areas.
"Pass-control system" is not recognized as a distinct type of pass system in security literature and is not classified within the known categories defined in the ASIS Protection of Assets (POA) Manual or PSP certification materials.
References:
ASIS International, Protection of Assets (POA), Physical Security
ASIS PSP Study Guide, Domain 3: Physical Security Operations
NEW QUESTION # 148
What is a major management function in business worldwide?
- A. Mission
- B. Quality
- C. Projection
- D. Security
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security is increasingly recognized as a critical management function in global business operations. From protecting physical assets to ensuring the safety of personnel and intellectual property, security plays a vital role in risk mitigation and continuity planning. It integrates with other business areas such as compliance, human resources, and information technology.
References:
ASIS International, Protection of Assets (POA), Chapter: Security Management ASIS PSP Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Operations and Business Integration
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following is NOT the advantage of contract services?
- A. Administration
- B. Expertise
- C. Control
- D. Staffing
Answer: C
Explanation:
One of the primary drawbacks of using contract security services is the reduction in direct control over the personnel and operations. While contract services offer benefits such as simplified administration, quick staffing solutions, and access to specialized expertise, they limit the organization's ability to directly manage and discipline personnel or tailor services to company-specific policies and culture.
Administration (B), Staffing (C), and Expertise (D) are all advantages of contract services.
Control (A) is a typical advantage of proprietary systems, not contract models.
References:
ASIS International, Protection of Assets Manual - Chapter on Security Personnel PSP Study Guide - Domain 3: Security Service Delivery Models
NEW QUESTION # 150
A temporary endeavor to accomplish a unique process is called a:
- A. Scope of work
- B. Work breakdown structure
- C. System
- D. Project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
A project is defined as a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. In security, examples include designing and installing a new access control system or conducting a vulnerability assessment.
A (Scope of work) outlines what a project includes.
B (Work breakdown structure) is a tool used in managing a project.
D (System) refers to a set of components working together, not the temporary process to build it.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Project Management Fundamentals
POA Manual - Defining Projects and Scope
NEW QUESTION # 151
A good risk management program involves:
- A. All of the above
- B. Study of security programs
- C. Analyze and study risks, including likelihood and degree of danger of an event
- D. Identify risks or specific vulnerabilities
Answer: A
Explanation:
A good risk management program incorporates multiple stages:
Identifying risks or vulnerabilities (e.g., threats to assets or processes) Analyzing risks based on likelihood and potential impact (quantitative or qualitative assessment) Evaluating and aligning existing or proposed security programs to determine adequacy and needed improvements All three elements are part of a systematic approach to managing security and organizational risk effectively.
References from PSP: Risk Management Process - ASIS POA; PSP Study Manual - Security Program Development
NEW QUESTION # 152
A set of unwanted instructions executed on a computer and resulting in a variety of effects is called:
- A. All of the above
- B. Bug
- C. Virus
- D. Worm
Answer: A
Explanation:
A virus is a type of malicious software that attaches itself to legitimate files and spreads when those files are executed.
A worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself to spread to other computers without needing to attach to a host file.
A bug refers to an error or flaw in software, but in the context of this question (malicious instructions causing effects), it can contribute to vulnerabilities exploited by malware.
Since all these can involve sets of unwanted instructions leading to harmful effects, "All of the above" is the most accurate answer.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Cybersecurity Threats and Malware Types
ASIS POA Manual - Information Security and System Integrity
NEW QUESTION # 153
Which terrorism requires organization and some type of leadership, recruitment, training, and retention of members?
- A. Individual terrorism
- B. Modern terrorism
- C. State terrorism
- D. Group terrorism
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 154
When sudden widespread destruction of data both on the computer system and on the peripheral devices occurs, the machine is possibly infected with a:
- A. Trojan Horse
- B. Catastrophic Virus
- C. Innocuous Bug
- D. Hostile worm
Answer: B
Explanation:
A catastrophic virus causes widespread and often irrecoverable damage to data on a system and its connected devices. Such viruses are designed to rapidly corrupt, delete, or overwrite data, leading to system failure and loss of operational capability.
Innocuous Bug (A) implies minimal or no harm.
Hostile worm (C) can be destructive but is not a defined term for this scenario.
Trojan Horse (D) is deceptive but does not usually cause sudden widespread destruction immediately.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Virus Classifications and Impact
PSP Study Guide - Malware Threat Profile
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following types of procurement is most frequently used when a customer has intimate knowledge of the requirements defined and the systems available in the market?
- A. Sole source
- B. Request for quote
- C. Invitation to bid
- D. Request for proposals
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Invitation to Bid (ITB) is typically used when the buyer has clearly defined requirements and a good understanding of the market offerings. It focuses on obtaining competitive pricing for known solutions and is suitable for well-specified projects where minimal deviation is expected.
B (Request for proposals) is used when buyer needs input on how to meet requirements.
C (Sole source) limits competition and is only used under specific conditions.
D (Request for quote) is generally used for lower-cost, commodity items.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Procurement Strategies
POA Manual - Competitive Bidding and Procurement Processes
NEW QUESTION # 156
The individual who commits a tort is called a tort-feasor, where as the injured party is called the plaintiff.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
In tort law, the person who commits a tortious act is known as a tort-feasor or wrongdoer. The party who is harmed or injured by the act and brings the civil action is known as the plaintiff.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Legal Terminology in Civil Law
ASIS POA Manual - Tort Law Concepts
NEW QUESTION # 157
The ongoing task of security management is to identify potential areas of loss and to develop and install appropriate security countermeasures, this process is called ______________.
- A. Risk management
- B. Business Evaluation
- C. Security Reimbursement
- D. Risk Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk management is the continuous and proactive process of identifying areas where a business may suffer losses, assessing the likelihood and potential impact of those losses, and implementing security countermeasures to minimize or eliminate them. This function ensures that organizational assets-people, property, and information-are protected against threats such as theft, sabotage, natural disasters, and operational failures.
References from PSP: ASIS POA - Risk Management; PSP Study Guide - Physical Security Assessment Domain
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which law concerns the rights, duties, and penalties of individuals in their relationship with each other?
- A. Constructive law
- B. Statutes suit
- C. Procedural law
- D. Substantive law
Answer: D
Explanation:
Substantive law defines the legal relationship between individuals, including rights, duties, and legal obligations. It governs how people behave in society and outlines the legal consequences for certain actions.
Procedural law (A) refers to the methods and processes for enforcing substantive laws (e.g., court procedures).
Statutes suit (B) and Constructive law (D) are not standard legal classifications.
References:
ASIS PSP Study Guide - Legal Framework in Physical Security
POA Manual - Understanding Substantive vs. Procedural Law
NEW QUESTION # 159
The classic triangle frequently referred to in describing the nature of fire consists of:
- A. heat, fuel, oxygen
- B. heat, smoke, oxygen
- C. heat, carbon dioxide, oxygen
- D. heat, light, oxygen
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 160
The classic triangle frequently referred to in describing the nature of fire consists of:
- A. heat, fuel, oxygen
- B. heat, smoke, oxygen
- C. heat, carbon dioxide, oxygen
- D. heat, light, oxygen
Answer: A
Explanation:
The classic "fire triangle" describes the three elements necessary for fire to occur:
Heat - to raise material to ignition temperature
Fuel - combustible material
Oxygen - typically from the air, to sustain combustion
Removing any one of these three elements will prevent or extinguish a fire.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Fire Protection Basics
ASIS POA Manual - Fire Behavior and Prevention
NEW QUESTION # 161
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