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ISTQB Foundation Level CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam and Certification Test Engine
NEW QUESTION # 55
Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?
- A. The test leader
- B. The customer
- C. The developer
- D. The development manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
The test leader is the person who is responsible for planning, monitoring, and controlling the test activities and resources in a test project. The test leader should have the best knowledge of the test objectives, scope, risks, resources, schedule, and quality criteria. The test leader should also be aware of the test automation criteria, such as the execution frequency, the test support, the team education, the roles and responsibilities, and the devs and testers collaboration1. Based on these factors, the test leader can decide which tests are suitable for automation and which are not, and prioritize them accordingly. The test leader can also coordinate with the test automation engineers, the developers, and the stakeholders to ensure the alignment of the test automation strategy with the test project goals and expectations. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, Page 152; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 403; ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 6, Section 6.1.1, Page 514; Top 8 Test Automation Criteria You Need To Fulfill - QAMIND1
NEW QUESTION # 56
A typical test objective is to:
- A. plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment
- B. verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements
- C. determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, it is stated that a key objective of testing is to verify that the test object meets regulatory requirements. This is crucial as compliance with regulatory standards ensures that the software adheres to necessary laws, guidelines, and safety standards which are often mandatory in various industries such as healthcare, finance, and aviation. Ensuring regulatory compliance helps prevent legal issues and promotes user safety and trust.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:
* [G1]: less than 300 euros
* [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros
* [G3]: greater than 2000 euros
Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario is 6.
This is because the decision table has 4 conditions (type of customer and amount of sale) and 4 actions (bonus percentage). The conditions have 2 possible values each (Basic or Premium, and G1, G2 or G3), so the total number of combinations is 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16. However, not all combinations are valid, as some of them are contradictory or impossible. For example, a sale cannot be both less than 300 euros and greater than 2000 euros at the same time. Therefore, we need to eliminate the invalid combinations and keep only the valid ones.
The valid combinations are:
Type of customer
Amount of sale
Bonus percentage
Basic
G1
3%
Basic
G2
5%
Basic
G3
7%
Premium
G1
5%
Premium
G2
7%
Premium
G3
10%
These 6 combinations cover all the possible values of the conditions and actions, and they are the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents,
NEW QUESTION # 58
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:
- A. cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
- B. are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques
- C. are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid
- D. run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
Answer: D
Explanation:
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid because they are more focused, isolated, and atomic. They usually test individual units or components of the software system, such as classes, methods, or functions. They are also easier to maintain and execute, as they have fewer dependencies and interactions with other parts of the system. The tests at the top layer of the test pyramid, on the other hand, are slower because they cover larger pieces of functionalities, such as user interfaces, workflows, or end-to-end scenarios. They also have more dependencies and interactions with other systems, such as databases, networks, or external services. They are more complex and costly to maintain and execute, as they require more setup and teardown procedures, test data, and test environments. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.2.1, Test Pyramid1 ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Pyramid2
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?
- A. Formal models
- B. Source code
- C. Compiled code
- D. Test plans
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a way that static analysis tools can analyze them.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.2.1, page 20; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 45.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?
- A. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.
- B. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.
- C. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.
- D. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Effort estimate does not depend on the budget of the project, but rather on the scope, complexity, and quality of the software product and the testing activities1. Budget is a constraint that may affect the feasibility and accuracy of the effort estimate, but it is not a factor that determines the effort estimate. Effort estimate is the amount of work required to complete the testing activities, measured in terms of person-hours, person-days, or person-months2.
* The other options are correct because:
* A. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up, as they are interrelated aspects of the test planning process3. Resources are the people, tools, equipment, and facilities needed to perform the testing activities4. Schedule is the time frame and sequence of the testing activities, aligned with the project milestones and deadlines5.
* B. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known, as it affects the number and severity of the defects that may be found and the rework that may be needed to fix them6. Quality is the degree to which the software product satisfies the specified requirements and meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients7.
* D. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques, which relies on the judgment and expertise of the testers and other project stakeholders to estimate the test effort based on similar projects or tasks done in the past. Experience based estimation can be useful when there is a lack of historical data, formal methods, or detailed information about the software product and the testing activities.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 154
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 155
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 156
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 157
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 158
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 159
* 7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
* [8] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 160
* [9] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 161
NEW QUESTION # 61
A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:
* [G1]: less than 300 euros
* [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros
* [G3]: greater than 2000 euros
Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario is 6. This is because the decision table has 4 conditions (type of customer and amount of sale) and 4 actions (bonus percentage). The conditions have 2 possible values each (Basic or Premium, and G1, G2 or G3), so the total number of combinations is 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16. However, not all combinations are valid, as some of them are contradictory or impossible. For example, a sale cannot be both less than 300 euros and greater than 2000 euros at the same time. Therefore, we need to eliminate the invalid combinations and keep only the valid ones. The valid combinations are:
Type of customer
Amount of sale
Bonus percentage
Basic
G1
3%
Basic
G2
5%
Basic
G3
7%
Premium
G1
5%
Premium
G2
7%
Premium
G3
10%
These 6 combinations cover all the possible values of the conditions and actions, and they are the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is true?
- A. Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews
- B. Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects
- C. Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist
- D. In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail
Answer: C
Explanation:
Checklist-based testing, as defined in the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, is indeed a review technique used within formal review processes. During these reviews, reviewers individually inspect work products to identify defects based on predefined checklists. These checklists serve as guidelines to ensure thorough examination and to cover important aspects consistently.
The other options do not accurately describe the checklist-based testing technique. Option A describes a technique for managing review meetings rather than the checklist-based testing itself. Option C incorrectly emphasizes the level of detail in checklists as a factor in reproducibility of test cases, which is not the primary focus of checklist-based testing. Option D, while true about the necessity of periodic review, is not the core aspect of the checklist-based testing technique itself.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following statements about statement coverage is true?
- A. Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved
- B. Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved
- C. Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised
- D. Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialized
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement coverage, also known as line coverage, is a metric used in white-box testing to measure the percentage of executable statements in the source code that have been executed by the test suite. Achieving a certain percentage of statement coverage means that an equivalent percentage of the executable statements in the code have been executed during testing.
For example, achieving 80% statement coverage indicates that 80% of the lines of code have been run through during the testing process. This metric helps in identifying parts of the code that have not been tested and may contain undetected defects.
It's important to note that achieving high statement coverage does not necessarily guarantee that all possible paths or scenarios within the code are tested, nor does it ensure the detection of all types of defects. Other coverage metrics, such as branch coverage or condition coverage, might also be necessary to achieve a more thorough testing process.
References:
* The official ISTQB CTFL syllabus clearly defines statement coverage and explains that it ensures that the corresponding percentage of all executable statements have been tested.
NEW QUESTION # 64
In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?
- A. Q3
- B. Q4
- C. Q1
- D. Q2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during the two-hour test session belong to the testing quadrant Q3. The testing quadrants are a classification of testing types based on two dimensions: the test objectives (whether the testing is focused on supporting the team or critiquing the product) and the test basis (whether the testing is based on the technology or the business). The testing quadrants are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4, and each quadrant represents a different testing perspective, such as unit testing, acceptance testing, usability testing, or performance testing. The testing quadrant Q3 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the business perspective, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance testing, alpha testing, beta testing, etc. The unscripted tests performed by the tester in the given scenario are examples of exploratory testing and usability testing, as they are based on the tester's experience, intuition, and learning of the web application, and they focus on some specific usabilityissues, such as the user interface, the user satisfaction, the user feedback, etc. The other options are incorrect, because:
The testing quadrant Q1 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the technology perspective, such as unit testing, component testing, integration testing, system testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by developers or testers who have access to the source code, the design, the architecture, or the configuration of the software system, and they aim to verify the functionality, the quality, and the reliability of the software system at different levels of integration.
The testing quadrant Q2 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the business perspective, such as functional testing, acceptance testing, story testing, scenario testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or customers who have access to the requirements, the specifications, the user stories, or the business processes of the software system, and they aim to validate that the software system meets the expectations and the needs of the users and the stakeholders.
The testing quadrant Q4 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the technology perspective, such as performance testing, security testing, reliability testing, compatibility testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or specialists who have access to the tools, the metrics, the standards, or the benchmarks of the software system, and they aim to evaluate the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as the efficiency, the security, the reliability, or the compatibility of the software system under different conditions or environments.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Testing Quadrant, Exploratory Testing, Usability Testing, Unit Testing, Component Testing, Integration Testing, System Testing, Functional Testing, Acceptance Testing, Story Testing, Scenario Testing, Performance Testing, Security Testing, Reliability Testing, Compatibility Testing
NEW QUESTION # 65
As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:
[I]. Test environment
[II]. Expected result
[III]. Actual result
[IV]. Test level
[V]. Root cause
Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly specify in a defect report?
- A. [II]. [Ill] and [V]
- B. [I]and [IV]
- C. [II]and [III]
- D. [I]. [IV] and [V]
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the V-model project described in the question, the tester can identify the following based on the provided information:
* Expected result (II): The requirements specification clearly states that the app should only ask for access permissions to the camera and photos stored on the device during and after installation. This expected behavior is defined by the requirements.
* Actual result (III): The tester observes that the app also requests access to all contacts on the device, which deviates from the expected result. This actual observation can be recorded accurately.
Given these details, the tester can specify the expected result (II) and the actual result (III) in the defect report.
However, without more information, the tester cannot determine the test environment (I), the test level (IV), or the root cause (V).
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.5 on Defect Reporting
* Typical contents of a defect report as mentioned in the syllabus include the expected result and the actual result observed during testing.
NEW QUESTION # 66
An anti-intrusion system is battery powered and is activated by pressing the only available button. To deactivate the system, the operator must enter a PIN code. The system will stay in alert mode within a configurable timeout and an alarm bell will ring if the system is not deactivated before the timeout expires.
The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of the system:
What is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4 states/3 transitions starting and ending in the "Inactive" state? (note that "Inactive" is not a final state in the diagram)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the given state transition diagram, we need to identify the minimum number of test cases required to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4 states/3 transitions starting and ending in the "Inactive" state.
The states are:
* Inactive
* Active
* Alert Mode
* Alarm bell rings
* Inactive -> Active -> Inactive -> Active -> Inactive
* Sequence: Press Button, Enter PIN, Press Button, Enter PIN
* Inactive -> Active -> Alert Mode -> Inactive
* Sequence: Press Button, Sensor Activated, Enter PIN
* Inactive -> Active -> Alert Mode -> Alarm bell rings -> Inactive
* Sequence: Press Button, Sensor Activated, Timeout expired, Press Button Test Case Analysis:These sequences cover every unique combination of exactly 4 states and 3 transitions starting and ending in the "Inactive" state.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus Section 4.2 on state transition testing.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Membl,..., Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1. 2, 3, 5, 8,13, 21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:
Membl = 3 Memb2 = 3 Memb3 = 3
Memb4 = 21 Memb5 = 3 Memb6 = 1
Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?
- A. Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before to proceed to another estimation round
- B. Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points
- C. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values: most optimistic estimate = 1, most likely estimate = 3, and most pessimistic estimate = 21
- D. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4) and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique used in Agile. It involves team members selecting cards with their estimate for a user story, then discussing the differences in estimates.
* Option A: Incorrect. While three-point estimation is valid, planning poker focuses on team consensus rather than individual estimation techniques.
* Option B: Incorrect. The goal of planning poker is not to force unanimity but to reach a reasonable consensus.
* Option C: Incorrect. Averaging estimates is not how planning poker works.
* Option D: Correct. The members with the highest and lowest estimates discuss their reasoning to foster understanding and adjust estimates accordingly in subsequent rounds.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:
*If n < 0, a message "Value out of range" must be issued.
*If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number
*If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued
Which of the following statements about the equivalence partitions is CORRECT?
- A. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same
- B. The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping
- C. There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200
- D. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to
200 will be very large
Answer: B
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning involves dividing input data into partitions that are treated the same by the system under test. The given specifications create overlapping partitions:
* For n<0n < 0n<0, an error message "Value out of range" is issued.
* For 0<n<1000 < n < 1000<n<100, the factorial is calculated.
* For 100<n<200100 < n < 200100<n<200, the same error message "Value out of range" is issued.
However, the range between 0 and 100 is exclusive of 0 and 100, meaning that the partitions overlap and create ambiguity for the boundary values. Thus, the correct statement is that the requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping.
NEW QUESTION # 69
In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?
- A. Q3
- B. Q4
- C. Q1
- D. Q2
Answer: A
Explanation:
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during the two-hour test session belong to the testing quadrant Q3. The testing quadrants are a classification of testing types based on two dimensions: the test objectives (whether the testing is focused on supporting the team or critiquing the product) and the test basis (whether the testing is based on the technology or the business). The testing quadrants are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4, and each quadrant represents a different testing perspective, such as unit testing, acceptance testing, usability testing, or performance testing. The testing quadrant Q3 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the business perspective, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance testing, alpha testing, beta testing, etc. The unscripted tests performed by the tester in the given scenario are examples of exploratory testing and usability testing, as they are based on the tester's experience, intuition, and learning of the web application, and they focus on some specific usability issues, such as the user interface, the user satisfaction, the user feedback, etc. The other options are incorrect, because:
The testing quadrant Q1 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the technology perspective, such as unit testing, component testing, integration testing, system testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by developers or testers who have access to the source code, the design, the architecture, or the configuration of the software system, and they aim to verify the functionality, the quality, and the reliability of the software system at different levels of integration.
The testing quadrant Q2 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the business perspective, such as functional testing, acceptance testing, story testing, scenario testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or customers who have access to the requirements, the specifications, the user stories, or the business processes of the software system, and they aim to validate that the software system meets the expectations and the needs of the users and the stakeholders.
The testing quadrant Q4 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the technology perspective, such as performance testing, security testing, reliability testing, compatibility testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or specialists who have access to the tools, the metrics, the standards, or the benchmarks of the software system, and they aim to evaluate the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as the efficiency, the security, the reliability, or the compatibility of the software system under different conditions or environments. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Testing Quadrant, Exploratory Testing, Usability Testing, Unit Testing, Component Testing, Integration Testing, System Testing, Functional Testing, Acceptance Testing, Story Testing, Scenario Testing, Performance Testing, Security Testing, Reliability Testing, Compatibility Testing
NEW QUESTION # 70
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.
Which of the following review types does this review refer to?
- A. Inspection
- B. Informal review
- C. Walkthrough
- D. Audit
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?
- A. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it
- B. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
- C. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
- D. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3
NEW QUESTION # 72
A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:
- A. Test design
- B. Test implementation
- C. Test monitoring and control
- D. Test analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created during test implementation. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3
NEW QUESTION # 73
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