NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Real & Updated Questions PDF
Pass Guaranteed Quiz 2023 Realistic Verified Free NCLEX
NEW QUESTION # 436
A 54-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a possible gastric ulcer. He is a heavy smoker. When discussing his smoking habits with him, the nurse should advise him to:
- A. Smoke only right after meals
- B. Smoke low-tar, filtered cigarettes
- C. Smoke cigars instead
- D. Chew gum instead
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A, B, D) Cigarettes, cigars, and chewing gum would stimulate gastric acid secretion. (C) Smoking on a full stomach minimizes effect of nicotine on gastric acid.
NEW QUESTION # 437
A 16-year-old client with anorexia nervosa is on an inpatient psychiatric unit. She has a fear of gaining weight and is refusing to eat sufficient amounts to maintain body weight for her age, height, and stature. To assist with the problem of powerlessness and plan for the client to no longer need to withhold food to feel in control, the nurse uses the following strategy:
- A. Do frequent room checks to be sure that the client is not hiding food or throwing it away.
- B. Distract the client during meals to get her to eat because she must take in sufficient amounts to keep from starving.
- C. Listen attentively and participate in in-depth discussions about food, because these actions may encourage her to eat.
- D. Establish a structured environment with routine tasks and activities. Also, serve meals at the same time each day.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A)
Anorexia nervosa clients feel out of control. Providing a structured environment offers safety and comfort and can help them to develop internal control, thus reducing their need to control by self-starvation. (B) Distraction does not focus on the client's need for control.
(C)
Doing frequent room checks reinforces feelings of powerlessness and the need to continue with the dysfunctional behavior. (D) Participating in long discussions about food does not make the client want to eat, but rather this strategy allows her to indulge in her preoccupation and to continue with the dysfunctional behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 438
A client is in early labor. Her fetus is in a left occipitoanterior (LOA) position; fetal heart sounds are best auscultated just:
- A. At the umbilicus
- B. Below the umbilicus toward right side of mother's abdomen
- C. Above the umbilicus to the left side of mother's abdomen
- D. Below the umbilicus toward left side of mother's abdomen
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) LOA identifies a fetus whose back is on its mother's left side, whose head is the presenting part, and whose back is toward its mother's anterior. It is easiest to auscultate fetal heart tones (FHTs) through the fetus's back. (B) The identified fetus's back is on its mother's left side, not right side. It is easiest to auscultate FHTs through the fetus's back. (C) In an LOA position, the fetus's head is presenting with the back to the left anterior side of the mother. The umbilicus is too high of a landmark for auscultating the fetus's heart rate through its back. (D) This is the correct auscultation point for a fetus in the left sacroanterior position, where the sacrum is presenting, not LOA.
NEW QUESTION # 439
A physician's order reads: 0.25 normal saline at 50 mL/hr until discontinued. The nurse is using a microdrip tubing set. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?
- A. 5 gtt/min
- B. 100 gtt/min
- C. 50 gtt/min
- D. 1 gtt/min
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C)50 gtt/min. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.
NEW QUESTION # 440
The initial treatment for a client with a liquid chemical burn injury is to:
- A. Irrigate the area with neutralizing solutions
- B. Inject calcium chloride into the burned area
- C. Apply lanolin ointment to the area
- D. Flush the exposed area with large amounts of water
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) In the past, neutralizing solutions were recommended, but presently there is concern that these solutions extend the depth of burn area. (B) The use of large amounts of water to flush the area is recommended for chemical burns. (C) Calcium chloride is not recommended therapy and would likely worsen the problem. (D) Lanolin is of no benefit in the initial treatment of a chemical injury and may actually extend a thermal injury.
NEW QUESTION # 441
The physician has ordered that ampicillin 250 mg IV be given over 30 minutes. The medication is diluted as recommended in 10 mL in the volume control chamber of a set that has a tubing of 12 mL. Which nursing measure is most accurate considering these facts?
- A. Infuse volume at 22 mL/hr.
- B. Infuse volume at 30 mL/hr.
- C. Infuse volume at 10 mL/hr.
- D. Infuse volume at 44 mL/hr.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The volume to be infused should be diluted medication volume added to the volume control chamber (10 mL) plus the tubing volume (12 mL). The general formula for calculating IV medications for children is: Rate = Volume to Be Infused X Administration Set Drop Factor (microdrop: 60 gtts/min)Desired Time to Infuse in Minutes Rate = (10 + 12)22 X 60 30 = 44 mL/hr. (B, C, D) These values are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 442
A 50-year-old male client is to receive chemotherapy. The physician's orders include antiemetics. When planning his care, the nurse should take into consideration that antiemetics are best administered in the following way:
- A. Give antiemetics intermittently during the entire course of chemotherapy.
- B. Give antiemetics one at a time because combinations of antiemetics cause overwhelming side effects.
- C. Give antiemetics when nausea is experienced and continue on a regular schedule for 12-24 hours.
- D. Give antiemetics prior to the client receiving chemotherapy and continue on a regular basis for at least 24-48 hours after chemotherapy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Nausea is more difficult to control if antiemetics are withheld until nausea is experienced. (B) Antiemetics should be given prophylactically at the beginning of chemotherapy and continued on an around-the-clock basis to prevent nausea. (C) Combinations of antiemetics give the best control for nausea by blocking various causes of nausea induced by chemotherapy. (D) Antiemetics should be given around the clock during the course of chemotherapy. This prevents nausea from developing and prevents anticipatory nausea during subsequent chemotherapy administrations.
NEW QUESTION # 443
An 80-year-old male client with a history of arteriosclerosis is experiencing severe pain in his left leg that started approximately 20 minutes ago. When performing the admission assessment, the nurse would expect to observe which of the following:
- A. Decreased or absent pedal pulse in the left leg
- B. Both lower extremities warm to touch with 2_pedal pulses
- C. The left leg warmer to touch than the right leg
- D. Both lower extremities cyanotic when placed in a dependent position
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This statement describes a normal assessment finding of the lower extremities. (B) This assessment finding reflects problems caused by venous insufficiency. (C) Decreased or absentpedal pulses reflect a problem caused by arterial insufficiency. (D) The leg that is experiencing arterial insufficiency would be cool to touch due to the decreased circulation.
NEW QUESTION # 444
Which one of the following is considered a reliable indicator for assessing the adequacy of fluid resuscitation in a 3-year-old child who suffered partial- and fullthickness burns to 25% of her body?
- A. Urine output
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bulging fontanelle
- D. Edema
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Urinary output is a reliable indicator of renal perfusion, which in turn indicates that fluid resuscitation is adequate. IV fluids are adjusted based on the urinary output of the child during fluid resuscitation. (B) Edema is an indication of increased capillary permeability following a burn injury. (C) Hypertension is an indicator of fluid volume excess. (D) Fontanelles close by 18 months of age.
NEW QUESTION # 445
When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child:
- A. Diluted carbonated drinks
- B. Regular formulas mixed with electrolyte solutions
- C. Fruit juices
- D. Soy-based, lactose-free formula
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Diluted fruit juices are not recommended for rehydration because they tend to aggravate the diarrhea.
(B) Diluted soft drinks have a high-carbohydrate content, which aggravates the diarrhea. (C) Soy-based, lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea in most infants. (D) Regular formulas contain lactose, which can increase diarrhea.
NEW QUESTION # 446
Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?
- A. Chills shortly after delivery
- B. An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery
- C. Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day
- D. Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous response or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate during the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt to the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C) Urinary output increases during the early postpartal period (12-24 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must eliminate an estimated 2000-3000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy.
(D) A temperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor.
However, any temperature greater than 100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process.
NEW QUESTION # 447
Which of the following changes in blood pressure readings should be of greatest concern to the nurse when assessing a prenatal client?
- A. 118/70 to 130/88
- B. 130/88 to 144/92
- C. 136/90 to 148/100
- D. 150/96 to 160/104
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A, B, C) The individual's systolic and diastolic changes are more significant than the relatively high initial blood pressure readings. (D) The systolic pressure went up 12 mm Hg and the diastolic pressure 18 mm Hg. This is a more significant rise than the increases in A-C choices, and client should receive more frequent evaluations and care.
NEW QUESTION # 448
Other drugs may be ordered to manage a client's ulcerative colitis. Which of the following medications, if ordered, would the nurse question?
- A. Psyllium
- B. 6-Mercaptopurine
- C. Loperamide (Imodium)
- D. Methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Methylprednisolone sodium succinate is used for its anti-inflammatory effects. (B) Loperamide would be used to control diarrhea. (C) Psyllium may improve consistency of stools by providing bulk. (D) An immunosuppressant such as 6-mercaptopurine is used for chronic unrelenting Crohn's disease.
NEW QUESTION # 449
A husband asks if he can visit with his wife on her ECT treatment days and what to expect after the initial treatment. The nurse's best response is:
- A. "There's really no need to stay with her. She's going to sleep for several hours after the treatment."
- B. "Visitors are not allowed. We will telephone you to inform you of her progress."
- C. "Yes, you may visit. She may experience temporary drowsiness, confusion, or memory loss after each treatment."
- D. "You'll have to get permission from the physician to visit. Clients are pretty sick after the first treatment."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) It is within the nurse's realm of practice to grant visiting privileges according to hospital policy. ECT treatments do not make clients sick. (B) Visitors are allowed and encouraged, particularly family members.
(C) Clients are usually awake within 1 hour posttreatment. Drowsiness wanes as the anesthetic wears off.
(D) A family member is encouraged to stay with the client after return to the unit. The nurse has used an opportunity to do family teaching and allay fears by explaining temporary side effects of the treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 450
A 67-year-old client will be undergoing a coronary arteriography in the morning. Client teaching about postprocedure nursing care should include that:
- A. Bed rest with bathroom privileges will be ordered
- B. Some oozing of blood at the arterial puncture site is normal
- C. The leg used for arterial puncture should be kept straight for 8-12 hours
- D. He will be kept NPO for 8-12 hours
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Bed rest will be ordered for 8-12 hours postprocedure. Flexing of the leg at the arterial puncture site will occur if the client gets out of bed, and this is contraindicated after arteriography. (B) The client will be able to eat as soon as he is alert enough to swallow safely and that will depend on what medications are used for sedation during the procedure. (C) Oozing at the arterial puncture site is not normal and should be closely evaluated. (D) The leg where the arterial puncture occurred must be kept straight for 8-12 hours to minimize the risk of bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 451
A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with type I diabetes 3 months ago. Two weeks ago he complained of pain, redness, and tenderness in his right lower leg. He is admitted to the hospital with a slight elevation of temperature and vague complaints of "not feeling well." At 4:30 PM on the day of his admission, his blood glucose level is 50 mg; dinner will be served at 5:00 PM. The best nursing action would be to:
- A. Have him drink 4 oz of orange juice
- B. Ask him to dissolve three pieces of hard candy in his mouth
- C. Monitor him closely until dinner arrives
- D. Give him 3 tbsp of sugar dissolved in 4 oz of grape juice to drink
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The combination of sugar and juice will increase the blood sugar beyond the normal range. (B) Concentrated sweets are not absorbed as fast as juice; consequently, they elevate the blood sugar beyond the normal limit. (C) Four ounces of orange juice will act immediately to raise the blood sugar to a normal level and sustain it for 30 minutes until supper is served. (D) There is an increased potential for the client's blood sugar to decrease even further, resulting in diabetic coma.
NEW QUESTION # 452
......
Get to the Top with NCLEX-RN Practice Exam Questions: https://www.itexamsimulator.com/NCLEX-RN-brain-dumps.html
Free NCLEX Certification NCLEX-RN Ultimate Study Guide: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1P4g1ydEZ5pYmo9vG4mW5xBGx_GgEYZi1
