[UPDATED May-2024] Best Value Available Preparation Guide for HPE7-A07 Exam
1 Full HPE7-A07 Practice Test and 70 Unique Questions, Get it Now!
NEW QUESTION # 19
You are deploying a new AOS 10 mobility gateway cluster. Due to customer requirements, the gateways must be configured with static IP addresses and are restricted from communicating using port 443 to any URLs except tor "central arubanetworks.com How would you onboard these gateways successfully into HPE Aruba Networking Central?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A includes all necessary steps for a full setup of an AOS 10 mobility gateway cluster, including setting the system name, switch role, ACP FQDN address, uplink port information, IP address and default gateway, DNS IP address, controller country code, timezone and clock, andadmin password. Since the gateways must have static IP addresses and can only communicate on port 443 for a specific URL, this configuration would need to allow for static IP configuration and restrict communication to the required URL.
NEW QUESTION # 20
You created a new SSID with the security settings shown in the exhibit.
Some, but not all users complain that client devices are unable to connect to this SS1D. What is the reason for this?
- A. The primary servers shared key differs from the shared key configured for this server on HPE Aruba Networking Central.
- B. WPA3 Enterprise is not backward compatible with WPA2 Enterprise.
- C. The WPA3 Enterprise GCM-2S6 mode does not support transition mode.
- D. MAC authentication after a failed 802. ix authentication is not possible as the option "MAC Authentication Fall-Through" is disabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If some users are unable to connect to an SSID configured with WPA3-Enterprise GCM-256, and the "MAC Authentication Fall-Through" is disabled, it means that devices which fail 802.1X authentication will not attempt MAC authentication. If these client devices are configured to use MAC authentication as a backup method, they will fail to connect, explaining the issue faced by some users.
NEW QUESTION # 21
You want to configure an MTU of 9198 for a routedlag interface on a CX 6300 switch.Which configuration achieves this?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of ArubaOS-CX, particularly with the 6300 series switches, setting the MTU on a routed Link Aggregation Group (LAG) interface requires theinterface lag idcommand in the configuration, specifying the LAG interface you're configuring. Theip mtucommand is then used to set the desired MTU size for that LAG.
Option A correctly shows this configuration process, where the MTU is set to 9198 for the LAG interface, in line with the requirements for routing larger frames, which could be necessary for certain applications or data flows that require jumbo frames.
The information related to the configuration of Aruba switches is consistent with the principles and guidelines found in the technical documentation for the ArubaOS-CX 6300 series switches, which emphasizes the importance of correct MTU settings for network performance and stability.
NEW QUESTION # 22
You configured a tunneled SSID with captive portal and a ClearPass Guest Self Registration workflow when testing and launching the self-registration workflow, after successful registration, the login action shows the following error:
What is the best solution to resolve this error?
- A. You need to include the root and intermediate certificates in the captive portal certificate for your gateway
- B. You need to change the Login Address in ClearPass to securelogin arubanetworKs.com
- C. You need to include the root and intermediate certificates in the captive portal certificate for your access points
- D. You need to De connected to the guest SSiD while testing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Including the root and intermediate certificates in the captive portal certificate for the gateway will resolve the error seen during the login action after successful registration. This is necessary to ensure the SSL/TLS handshake can be completed successfully, as the client browser needs to validate the entire certificate chain.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A network technician racked up two 9240 mobility gateways in a single cluster that will be terminating 1700 APs in a medium-sized branch office Next, the technician cabled the gateways with two SFP28 Direct Attach Copper (DAC) cables, distributed between a two-member core switching stack and powered them up.
What must the network administrator do next regarding the gateway configuration to ensure maximum wired bandwidth utilization?
- A. Disable the spanning tree and allocate unique VLANs to each port.
- B. Map two physical ports to a port channel on each gateway.
- C. Manually set 25Gbps speeds on all ports.
- D. Make an ports trunk interfaces and permit data VLANs
Answer: B
Explanation:
To maximize wired bandwidth utilization, especially when multiple APs are terminating on mobility gateways, it's best practice to aggregate physical ports into a port channel. This provides redundancy and increased bandwidth by combining the throughput of multiple ports.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A customer is evaluating device profiles on a CX 6300 switch. The test device has the following attributes:
* MAC address = 81:cd:93:13:ab:31
* LLDP sys-desc = iotcontroller
The test device is being assigned to the ''lot-dev'' role However, the customer requires the "lot-prod'' role be applied.
Given the configuration, what is causing the "iot-dev" role to be applied to the device'?
- A. The LLDP system description matches the IIdp-group configuration.
- B. The test device does not support CDP.
- C. The device-profile precedence order is not configured.
- D. An external RADIUS server is unreachable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In device profile configuration, the device role is often determined by matching attributes such as MAC address, LLDP system description, and CDP information against defined conditions. The test device is being assigned the "iot-dev" role because its LLDP system description matches the 'iot-lldp' group configuration that is associated with the 'iot-dev' role.
NEW QUESTION # 25
An ACME company employee complained about a recent poor-quality VoIP call while moving aroundtheir office environment HPE Aruba Networking Central reported a fair UCC score for this callwhile your VoIP engineer reported that their systems reported a MOS of 2,3. The VoIP devices are operatingover the 5GHz frequency band.
What are the possible contributing factors? (Select two.)
- A. 802.1K is disabled in the WLAN Security settings
- B. Coverage AP deployment plans generally don't support enough cell overlap for VoIP.
- C. 802.tr is enabled in the WLAN Security settings.
- D. The client roamed into an area that continuously operates Zigbee.
- E. There was localized interference at the caller's location
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
VoIP quality can be negatively impacted by insufficient cell overlap in AP deployment plans, which can cause poor handoffs between APs as a user moves around. This results in a degraded VoIP experience. Additionally, roaming into an area with continuous Zigbee operation can cause interference with the 5GHz frequency band, further contributing to poor VoIP call quality. The Zigbee communication protocol operates on the same frequency band as Wi-Fi and can introduce noise and interference, which leads to a reduced MOS score, as reported by the VoIP engineer.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A customer is deploying a new warehouse with AP-634 APs inthe unitedStates with mobile devices that can operate in the 6GHz spectrum All testing and RF analyses were performed during the POC using AP-635 APs In a different location During the deployment, they noticed fewer 6GHz channels were broadcasting in the air.
Why would the AP-634 deployment have a lesser amount of broadcasting channels?
- A. The AP-635 APs received different allowable 6GHz channels from the AFC service versus the AP-634 APs due to the POC running in a different location.
- B. The AP-634 AP's persona was configured in the Central group as Standard Power.
- C. The AP-634 APs cannot broadcast an 6Gnz channels due to regulatory restrictions.
- D. The AP-634 APs do not have an advanced subscription.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the United States, the operation in the 6GHz band for Wi-Fi devices such as the AP-634 and AP-635 is regulated by the Automated Frequency Coordination (AFC) system, which determines the channels that can be used based on the location. Since the Proof of Concept (POC) was conducted in a different location using AP-635 APs, the allowable channels identified by the AFC service for that location would be different than the channels allowed for the actual deployment location of the AP-634 APs. This would result in a different set of broadcasting channels being available for use in the new warehouse deployment.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Anetworkadministrator accesses HPE Aruba Networking Central and notices that visitors consume too much internet bandwidth starving employee traffic when accessing an external service.Therefore,the administrator wants to limitwireless bandwidth to 60 Mops in both directions among all users in the voice rote and no more than 10 Mops in both directions for YouTube traffic. Deep packet inspection, web contentclassification, andfirewall visibility are enabled.
Which configurations are required to accomplish this task? (Select two.)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
To achieve the bandwidth limits set by the network administrator, both per-application and total limits need to be configured. Option B shows the configuration for setting a per-application bandwidth limit, which can restrict YouTube traffic to 10 Mbps in both directions. Option D shows the configuration for setting a total bandwidth limit for all users within the voice role to 50000 Kbps (or 50 Mbps), satisfying the requirement to restrict total wireless bandwidth. By applying these configurations in HPE Aruba Networking Central, the administrator will successfully implement the necessary controls to ensure that visitor traffic does not impede the network performance for employee traffic, aligning with the capabilities of Aruba solutions to manage and prioritize network resources effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Exhibit.
A university runs its own TV station in the city The IT department deploys a multimedia server so the TV productions can be sent out to the entire campus over the IP network using multicast-based communications in order to improve the bandwidth consumption. PlM sparse Mode and IGMP snooping features are enabled.
When wireless users join the multicast groups, all users connected to the same WLAN experience poor network performance. However, wired users are not affected in this way While troubleshooting the network administrator saves the packet captures shown in the exhibit and concludes that all users even those not joining the multicast group, receive the same multicast flow at slow speeds.
Which features should the network administrator enable to fix the problem?
- A. Dynamic Multicast Optimization and UCC QoS correction
- B. Dynamic Multicast Optimization and Multicast Transmission Optimization
- C. UCC QoS correction and Multicast Transmission Optimization
- D. ARP broadcast conversion into unicast and Multicast Transmission Optimization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) and Multicast Transmission Optimization are features that can help address issues with multicast traffic in wireless environments. DMO optimizes the way multicast traffic is transmitted over the air by converting multicast streams into unicast streams to the clients that need them. This reduces unnecessary traffic for clients that have not subscribed to the multicast group and can improve overall network performance. Multicast Transmission Optimization adjusts the transmission rate of multicast frames to ensure they are sent at optimal speeds, addressing the issue of multicast flow being received at slow speeds by all users.
NEW QUESTION # 29
An OSPF router has learned a pain 10 an external network by Doth an E1 and an E2 advertisement Both routes have the same path cost Which path will the router prefer?
- A. The router will prefer the E2 path.
- B. The router will use Doth paths equally utilizing ECMP.
- C. Both routes will be suppressed until the path conflict has been resolved.
- D. The router will prefer the E1 path.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In OSPF, when a router learns about an external network through both E1 and E2 advertisements, and if both have the same path cost, the router will prefer the E1 path. This is because E1 routes consider both the external cost to reach the external network and the internal cost to reach the ASBR, providing a more comprehensive metric. E2 routes only consider the external cost and ignore the internal cost to the ASBR, which could potentially lead to suboptimal routing. Therefore, the router will choose the E1 path due to its more accurate representation of the total path cost.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Exhibit.
An engineer has applied the above configuration to R1 and R2 However the routers OSPF adjacency never progresses past the "EXSTART-DR" slate as shown below.
Which configuration action on either router will allow R1 and R2 to progress past the "EXSTART/DR" state?
- A. Ensure the OSPF process is not configured with passive-interface default.
- B. Change the IP address and mask applied to interface 1/1/1.
- C. Remove the layer 3 MTU configuration.
- D. Change R1 and R2 to a network type of point-to-point.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In OSPF, the "EXSTART/DR" state indicates that the routers are trying to establish an adjacency but are unable to progress. This can happen if the OSPF network type is incorrectly configured for the type of connection between the routers. Given that R1 and R2 are connected via a point-to-point link (as suggested by the /31 subnet), setting the network type to point-to-point on both routers will remove the need for DR/BDR election, which is unnecessary on a point-to-point link, and allow OSPF to progress past the "EXSTART" state and form a full adjacency.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Based on best practices if an SSID is configured Tor a primary and secondary gateway cluster with cluster preemption enabled, which will decide if the APs move to the secondary gateway cluster if all of the nodes in the primary gateway cluster are down?
- A. cluster leader in the primary gateway cluster
- B. tunnel orchestrator for LAN tunnel service in HPE Aruba Networking Central
- C. every AP individually
- D. cluster leader in the secondary gateway cluster
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an Aruba network, if an SSID is configured for a primary and secondary gateway cluster with cluster preemption enabled, each AP individually will decide to move to the secondary gateway cluster if all of the nodes in the primary gateway cluster are down. This decentralized decision-making process enhances network resilience and ensures uninterrupted service for clients connected to the APs.
NEW QUESTION # 32
You are troubleshooting a WLAN deployment with APs and gateways set up with an 802.1X tunneled SSIO.
End-users are complaining that they can't connect to die enterprise SSID. Which possible AP tunnel states could be the cause of the Issue? (Select two.)
- A. SM_STATE_SURVIVED
- B. SM_STATE_CONNECTED
- C. SM_STATE_CONNECTING
- D. SM_STATE_RE KEYING
- E. SM_STATE_SURVIVING
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
When troubleshooting a WLAN with 802.1X tunneled SSID issues, AP tunnel states indicate the status of the connection between the AP and the gateway/controller. The states 'SM_STATE_REKEYING' and
'SM_STATE_CONNECTING' could indicate transitional states where the connection has not been fully established, hence users might face issues connecting to the SSID. 'SM_STATE_REKEYING' implies that the AP is in the process of re-establishing encryption keys, while 'SM_STATE_CONNECTING' indicates that the AP is trying to establish a connection with the controller or gateway. These states could lead to temporary connectivity issues until the state transitions to 'SM_STATE_CONNECTED'.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A customer is planning to add loT devices that connect wirelessly to the existing 802.1X SSlD. The customer will use ClearPass to authenticate the IoT devices by MAC address but other devices will still need to authenticate by only 802 1X Exhibit.
The customer provided the current configuration and reported their non-loT 802. IX devices are no longer able to connect. Which configuration change can be made to fix the issue?
- A. Add i2-autn-fairtnrougn to the WLAN configuration
- B. Modify max-authentication failures to 0.
- C. Modify opmode wpa3-aes-gcm-256 to opmode wpa2-aes
- D. Remove mac-authentication from the WLAN configuration
Answer: D
Explanation:
The existing configuration for the WLAN ssid-profile has enabled MAC authentication which, while suitable for IoT devices that may not support 802.1X, can interfere with the normal 802.1X authentication process for other devices. By removing themac-authenticationdirective from the WLAN configuration, the non-IoT
802.1X devices should be able to connect without issues as the authentication process will not be disrupted by MAC authentication checks. This adjustment ensures that the WLAN ssid-profile is correctly aligned with the authentication requirements for both IoT and non-IoT devices within the network environment, conforming to the best practices for mixed-device WLAN configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which statement is true given the following CLIoutput from a CX 6300?
- A. There are two anycast addresses m me overlay fabric.
- B. Duplicate MAC addresses were detected in the overlay fabric
- C. The underlay loopback addresses are in the 172 21 11 x range.
- D. There are three active client overlay VLANs in the overlay fabric
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CLI output displays EVPN routes and their corresponding next hops. The "Route Distinguisher" entries followed by IP addresses in the 172.21.11.x range indicate these are loopback addresses used by the underlay network. The underlay network provides the basic routing and forwarding plane for the overlay network that EVPN is part of. These loopback addresses are crucial for the proper functioning of the EVPN control plane.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A deployment using AP-635S is connectedto a stack of CX 6300s as shown.
The output of the snow LACPinterfaces shews the following:
What is causing this issue?
- A. Spanning tree and loop protect are enabled on both AP uplink ports.
- B. e0 is connected to a smart rate interface, and e1 is connected to a non-smart rate interface.
- C. Each AP interface is connected to a routed-only interlace on different networks
- D. The AP is configured with LACP active
Answer: D
Explanation:
In an Aruba deployment, if an AP's interfaces show different LACP states, it often indicates a configuration mismatch. If one interface is up and the other is blocked as shown in the output,it's likely due to both interfaces on the AP being set to LACP active mode, which is a correct setting for establishing an LACP channel with Aruba switches like the CX 6300 series.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Exhibit.
A network administrator attempts to improve multicast traffic flow and performs some packet captures for validation What can the network administrator conclude from the results?
- A. The data rate increased from 6 Mbps to 300 Mops because Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) was configured.
- B. The capture taken after optimization does not show a packet length because Multicast Transmission Optimization was configured.
- C. The type flew remains consistent because Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) was configured.
- D. The data rate increased from 6 Mops to 300 Mops because Broadcast Multicast optimization (BCMCO) was configured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) is a feature that enhances the delivery of multicast traffic by optimizing the data rate. The before and after optimization images show a significant increase in the data rate, which is a typical result of DMO being configured, as it allows multicast traffic to be transmitted at higher data rates by converting multicast streams into unicast streams for the clients that need them.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Exhibit.
A customer is reporting mat connectivity is Tailing for some wireless client Devices. What are your conclusions from the capture? (Select two.)
- A. The client is not receiving an IP address.
- B. The network is using WPA2-PSK key management.
- C. The client does not have an ARP entry for me default gateway.
- D. The client does not support beamforming.
- E. The network is using WPA3-SAE key management.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The capture shows messages related to WPA key management, indicating WPA2-PSK is being used. Also, the capture includes a DHCP request from the client but no corresponding DHCP ACK, suggesting the client is not receiving an IP address, which could explain the connectivity failure.
NEW QUESTION # 38
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