View All Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Actual Free Exam Questions May 06, 2026 Updated [Q42-Q59]

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View All Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Actual Free Exam Questions May 06, 2026 Updated

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WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Monitoring, Logging, and Issue Remediation: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Engineers and covers responding to issues identified through AWS monitoring and logging tools. Candidates must show they can interpret system outputs, identify problems, and take corrective actions to maintain smooth cloud operations.
Topic 2
  • Cloud Service Deployment and Management: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Engineers and covers the technical knowledge required to deploy, manage, and operate cloud services. It focuses on understanding stability, scalability, backup processes, recovery methods, and general deployment practices. Candidates are expected to show they can handle provisioning, monitoring, and connectivity tasks needed to support cloud environments.
Topic 3
  • Implementing Cloud Security and Compliance: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Engineers and covers the use of AWS security tools to protect data and infrastructure. Candidates must demonstrate awareness of compliance needs and the ability to apply protective controls that align with industry and organizational standards.
Topic 4
  • Configuring Cloud Network Connectivity: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Engineers and covers network connectivity within AWS environments, including setup, troubleshooting, and corrective actions. Candidates must show they can manage cloud networking in a way that ensures reliable communication between systems and services.
Topic 5
  • Automating Cloud Provisioning and Maintenance: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Operations engineers and covers the ability to automate provisioning tasks and ongoing maintenance activities. It emphasizes using automation tools to streamline cloud resource creation and lifecycle management. Students must demonstrate they can apply automation to maintain efficient cloud operations.
Topic 6
  • Optimizing Cost and Performance Baselines: This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Operations engineers and covers determining the best balance between cost and performance using AWS services. It involves selecting suitable configurations and resource types to maintain efficient operations while avoiding unnecessary spending.

 

NEW QUESTION # 42
(A company is developing an application with the following requirements: * Amazon EC2 instances must be restricted to Free Tier-eligible types. * Instances of unapproved types must be terminated automatically.
Which two services should be used? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. Config
  • B. Systems Manager
  • C. Launch Wizard
  • D. OpsWorks

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
To meet the requirements of restricting EC2 instances to Free Tier-eligible types and automatically terminating unapproved instances, AWS Systems Manager and AWS Config should be used. Systems Manager can enforce instance compliance through automation documents that monitor and terminate non- compliant instances. AWS Config provides continuous monitoring and evaluation of resource configurations against defined rules, such as those limiting instance types to Free Tier-eligible options (e.g., t2.micro or t3.
micro). The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.1, AWS Config and Systems Manager) notes, "AWS Config can be configured with a rule to detect non-Free Tier EC2 instances, while Systems Manager Automation can execute a termination script based on Config findings." OpsWorks and Launch Wizard are not designed for this specific compliance and automation use case.


NEW QUESTION # 43
(An AWS SysOps administrator needs to configure Amazon Route 53 to load balance customer requests across multiple identically configured websites. The load balancing method must ensure that the customer requests are directed to the website that offers the shortest round-trip time. Which routing policy should be used?)

  • A. Geolocation
  • B. Weighted
  • C. Geoproximity
  • D. Latency

Answer: D

Explanation:
The latency routing policy in Amazon Route 53 should be used to direct customer requests to the website with the shortest round-trip time (RTT). This policy routes traffic to the AWS region with the lowest latency based on the user's location, optimizing performance. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53 Routing Policies) states, "The latency-based routing policy in Route 53 measures RTT to direct users to the region with the lowest latency, improving user experience across multiple websites." Geolocation, geoproximity, and weighted policies do not prioritize RTT in this manner.


NEW QUESTION # 44
(Which two solutions are supported by CloudWatch? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. Event response
  • B. Threat detection
  • C. Instance monitoring
  • D. Load balancing

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch supports several monitoring and management solutions, including event response and instance monitoring. Event response is facilitated through CloudWatch Events, which can trigger actions based on predefined rules, such as invoking AWS Lambda functions. Instance monitoring involves collecting and tracking metrics from Amazon EC2 instances, providing visibility into performance and health. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Overview) highlights that CloudWatch is designed for instance monitoring and event-driven responses, while load balancing and threat detection are handled by services like Elastic Load Balancing and GuardDuty, respectively.


NEW QUESTION # 45
(A company is using Route 53 for Domain Name System (DNS) hosting. The company requires a zone that should only be accessible from instances in a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC). Which type of hosted zone should be used?)

  • A. DNS Zone
  • B. Public Hosted Zone
  • C. Lightsail DNS Zone
  • D. Private Zone

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Private Hosted Zone in Amazon Route 53 should be used to restrict DNS resolution to instances within a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC), ensuring that the zone is only accessible internally. This isolates DNS services from public internet access. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53 Hosted Zones) states, "A Private Hosted Zone in Route 53 limits DNS resolution to resources within a specified VPC, preventing external access and enhancing security for internal services." Public Hosted Zones, DNS Zones, and Lightsail DNS Zones do not provide this VPC-specific restriction.


NEW QUESTION # 46
(A company uses KMS for key management. The company has a requirement to ensure that cryptographic material is not used longer than a year. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement with the least amount of effort?)

  • A. Move keys from KMS to CloudHSM
  • B. Write a Lambda function to replace keys in KMS
  • C. Enable automatic key rotation in KMS
  • D. Develop a custom key encryption protocol for KMS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Enabling automatic key rotation in AWS Key Management Service (KMS) is the least effort solution to ensure cryptographic material is not used longer than a year. KMS automatically rotates the cryptographic material of symmetric customer master keys (CMKs) every 365 days, meeting the requirement without manual intervention. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.3, KMS) states,
"Automatic key rotation in KMS rotates the backing key material every year for symmetric CMKs, providing a low-effort way to comply with key usage limits." Moving to CloudHSM, custom protocols, or Lambda functions require more effort and complexity.


NEW QUESTION # 47
(A company builds an application that renders 3D movies for its users. The application does this by spawning a fleet of instances that each take a slice of the workload and then render a few hundred frames in around 30 minutes. If processing on a node is interrupted, the work can be moved to other running nodes. The cost to users is based on the underlying AWS cost plus a margin. Which EC2 instance type is most suitable to run workload pattern at the lowest cost?)

  • A. Dedicated Instance
  • B. Spot Instance
  • C. On-Demand Instance
  • D. Reserved Instance

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Spot Instances are the most suitable EC2 instance type for this workload pattern, offering the lowest cost for short, interruptible tasks like 3D rendering, where work can be redistributed if interrupted. This aligns with the company's cost-plus pricing model. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
7.3, EC2 Instance Types) states, "Spot Instances provide significant cost savings (up to 90% off On-Demand) for fault-tolerant, short-term workloads like rendering, where interruptions can be handled by redistributing tasks to other nodes." On-Demand, Dedicated, and Reserved Instances are more expensive and less flexible for this use case.


NEW QUESTION # 48
(A company stores critical data on general-purpose Amazon EBS volumes. The company can only tolerate the loss of up to one hour of data. Which solution should be used to protect data from loss?)

  • A. Schedule automated volume snapshots using CloudWatch Events
  • B. Enable automated volume backups in Cloud Control
  • C. Replace existing volumes with local storage
  • D. Switch to Block Express volume type

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To protect critical data on EBS volumes with a maximum tolerable data loss of one hour, the company should schedule automated volume snapshots using CloudWatch Events. Snapshots capture the state of the volume at a point in time, and regular scheduling (e.g., every hour) ensures data loss is limited to the snapshot interval.
The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.3, EBS and Snapshots) states,
"Automated EBS snapshots can be scheduled using CloudWatch Events rules to create backups at defined intervals, ensuring an RPO of one hour by capturing volume data regularly." Local storage, Cloud Control backups, and Block Express are not viable solutions for this automated snapshot requirement.


NEW QUESTION # 49
(A company is using CloudWatch on its EC2 instances. The company needs to determine the number of bytes received by an instance on all network interfaces for proper sizing of the instance. Which metric should the company use?)

  • A. NetworkOut
  • B. NetworkPacketsIn
  • C. NetworkPacketsOut
  • D. NetworkIn

Answer: D

Explanation:
The `NetworkIn` metric in Amazon CloudWatch should be used to determine the number of bytes received by an EC2 instance across all network interfaces, aiding in proper instance sizing based on inbound traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Metrics) states, "The
`NetworkIn` metric measures the total number of bytes received on all network interfaces of an EC2 instance, providing critical data for sizing decisions to handle inbound traffic effectively." NetworkPacketsIn, NetworkOut, and NetworkPacketsOut measure packet counts or outbound data, which are less relevant for this purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 50
(Which solution should be used to host content to be processed for Amazon Made?)

  • A. DocumentDB
  • B. S3
  • C. EC2
  • D. DynamoDB

Answer: B

Explanation:
Amazon S3 (Simple Storage Service) should be used to host content to be processed for Amazon Made, as it provides scalable object storage ideal for storing and retrieving large amounts of data, such as media files or documents, for processing workflows. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
2.1, Amazon S3) states, "S3 is the preferred solution for hosting content to be processed by services like Amazon Made, offering durable and highly available storage with support for lifecycle policies and integration with other AWS services." DocumentDB, DynamoDB, and EC2 are not designed for this content hosting purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 51
(An administrator needs to create Systems Manager Automation documents to take action based on AWS Config rules. Which two file formats should be used? Choose 2 answers.)

  • A. YAML
  • B. XML
  • C. JSON
  • D. CSV

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Systems Manager Automation documents can be created using JSON or YAML file formats to define workflows and actions based on AWS Config rules. These formats allow administrators to specify the steps and parameters for automation tasks, such as remediation actions triggered by Config rule evaluations. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.1, Systems Manager Automation) states that both JSON and YAML are supported formats for writing Automation documents, providing flexibility in scripting automation logic. XML and CSV are not supported formats for this purpose.


NEW QUESTION # 52
(Where does Patch Manager send compliance reports?)

  • A. Route 53
  • B. OpsWorks
  • C. Elastic Block Store (EBS)
  • D. Simple Storage Service (S3)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Patch Manager in AWS Systems Manager sends compliance reports to an Amazon S3 bucket, where they are stored for auditing and analysis. This allows administrators to track patch compliance status across EC2 instances and on-premises servers. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.2, Patch Manager) states, "Patch Manager compliance reports are delivered to an S3 bucket configured as a target, providing a centralized location for reviewing patch status and compliance data." OpsWorks, EBS, and Route 53 are not used for storing these reports.


NEW QUESTION # 53
(Which AWS monitoring feature is used to process events using AWS Lambda?)

  • A. Rules
  • B. Metrics
  • C. Logs
  • D. Targets

Answer: A

Explanation:
The AWS monitoring feature used to process events with AWS Lambda is CloudWatch Events, specifically through the use of rules. Rules define the events to monitor (e.g., based on event patterns) and specify targets like AWS Lambda functions to process those events. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, CloudWatch Events) explains that rules are the core component for event-driven architectures, enabling automation by linking events to Lambda for processing. Metrics, targets, and logs are related but not the primary feature for this function.


NEW QUESTION # 54
(What should be configured in Systems Manager to set the error threshold for automation documents?)

  • A. Rate control
  • B. Maintenance windows
  • C. Session preferences
  • D. Resource group

Answer: A

Explanation:
In AWS Systems Manager, the error threshold for automation documents is configured using rate control.
Rate control allows administrators to define the maximum number of errors or concurrent executions that can occur before an automation task is throttled or stopped, ensuring system stability. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.1, Systems Manager Automation) explicitly states, "Rate control settings in Automation documents can be used to specify the maximum number of errors allowed during execution, helping to manage error thresholds effectively." Resource groups, session preferences, and maintenance windows do not directly address error thresholds.


NEW QUESTION # 55
(An administrator is unable to make an AMI public. What is the cause?)

  • A. Bookmark is absent
  • B. Boot volume is encrypted
  • C. Legacy BIOS boot mode is used
  • D. Paravirtual virtualization is used

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The inability to make an AMI public is caused by an encrypted boot volume. AWS does not allow AMIs with encrypted EBS snapshots to be shared publicly due to security constraints; sharing is limited to specific AWS accounts. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.3, AMI Management) states,
"An AMI cannot be made public if its boot volume is encrypted; encryption restricts sharing to authorized accounts only, requiring decryption keys to be managed separately." Legacy BIOS, paravirtual virtualization, and the absence of a bookmark do not impact AMI sharing.


NEW QUESTION # 56
(An endpoint is not responding to a request based on the failure threshold provided. What does Route 53 do once it considers the endpoint unhealthy?)

  • A. Terminates the connection attempt
  • B. Enables SQS
  • C. Sends out an SNS notification
  • D. Notifies CloudWatch

Answer: A

Explanation:
When Amazon Route 53 determines an endpoint is unhealthy based on a failure threshold (e.g., via health checks), it terminates the connection attempt to that endpoint and routes traffic to a healthy alternative, if available. This behavior ensures high availability using routing policies like failover or latency-based routing.
The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53 Health Checks) states,
"Route 53 stops routing traffic to an unhealthy endpoint by terminating connection attempts once the health check failure threshold is exceeded, redirecting to a healthy resource." Options A, C, and D are not direct actions taken by Route 53 in this scenario.


NEW QUESTION # 57
(Which solution is used to protect a server from Layer 7 attacks?)

  • A. Shield
  • B. CloudWatch
  • C. KMS key rotation
  • D. WAF

Answer: D

Explanation:
AWS WAF (Web Application Firewall) is used to protect a server from Layer 7 (application layer) attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, by filtering HTTP/HTTPS traffic based on defined rules. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.2, AWS WAF) states, "WAF protects web applications at Layer 7 by inspecting and blocking malicious requests, such as those involving SQL injection or XSS, when integrated with ALB or CloudFront." Shield protects against DDoS (Layer 3/4), CloudWatch monitors metrics, and KMS key rotation manages encryption, none of which address Layer 7 attacks.


NEW QUESTION # 58
(Media files are stored in an S3 bucket in region A. Demand for the files from region B has increased. Region B is suffering from some latency issues due to geographical location. Which type of replication will reduce the latency in region B?)

  • A. S3 Batch
  • B. Same-Region
  • C. S3 Versioning
  • D. Cross-Region

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To reduce latency in region B due to increased demand for media files stored in region A, cross-region replication (CRR) should be used. CRR replicates objects to an S3 bucket in another region (e.g., region B), allowing users to access files from a closer location, thus minimizing latency. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.2, S3 Replication) states, "Cross-Region Replication in S3 copies objects to a destination bucket in a different region, reducing latency by enabling access to data from the nearest region, such as region B in this case." S3 Batch, S3 Versioning, and Same-Region replication do not address cross-region latency.


NEW QUESTION # 59
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