[2022] Use Valid Exam CRISC by ITExamSimulator Books For Free Website [Q447-Q468]

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[2022] Use Valid Exam CRISC by ITExamSimulator Books For Free Website

Free Isaca Certificaton CRISC Official Cert Guide PDF Download


ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetailsWeights
Risk Response and ReportingA. Risk Response
  • Risk Treatment / Risk Response Options
  • Risk and Control Ownership
  • Third-Party Risk Management
  • Issue, Finding, and Exception Management
  • Management of Emerging Risk

B. Control Design and Implementation

  • Control Types, Standards, and Frameworks
  • Control Design, Selection, and Analysis
  • Control Implementation
  • Control Testing and Effectiveness Evaluation

C. Risk Monitoring and Reporting

  • Risk Treatment Plans
  • Data Collection, Aggregation, Analysis, and Validation
  • Risk and Control Monitoring Techniques
  • Risk and Control Reporting Techniques (heatmap, scorecards, dashboards)
  • Key Performance Indicators
  • Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
  • Key Control Indicators (KCIs)
32%
GovernanceA. Organizational Governance
  • Organizational Strategy, Goals, and Objectives
  • Organizational Structure, Roles, and Responsibilities
  • Organizational Culture
  • Policies and Standards
  • Business Processes
  • Organizational Assets

B. Risk Governance

  • Enterprise Risk Management and Risk Management Framework
  • Three Lines of Defense
  • Risk Profile
  • Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance
  • Legal, Regulatory, and Contractual Requirements
  • Professional Ethics of Risk Management
26%
Information Technology and SecurityA. Information Technology Principles
  • Enterprise Architecture
  • IT Operations Management (e.g., change management, IT assets, problems, incidents)
  • Project Management
  • Disaster Recovery Management (DRM)
  • Data Lifecycle Management
  • System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
  • Emerging Technologies

B. Information Security Principles

  • Information Security Concepts, Frameworks, and Standards
  • Information Security Awareness Training
  • Business Continuity Management
  • Data Privacy and Data Protection Principles
22%
IT Risk AssessmentA. IT Risk Identification
  • Risk Events (e.g., contributing conditions, loss result)
  • Threat Modelling and Threat Landscape
  • Vulnerability and Control Deficiency Analysis (e.g., root cause analysis)
  • Risk Scenario Development

B. IT Risk Analysis and Evaluation

  • Risk Assessment Concepts, Standards, and Frameworks
  • Risk Register
  • Risk Analysis Methodologies
  • Business Impact Analysis
  • Inherent and Residual Risk
20%

 

NEW QUESTION 447
Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months.
Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project.
What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?

  • A. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
  • B. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.
  • C. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
  • D. Project risk management happens at every milestone.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk management happens throughout the project as does project planning.
B: Milestones are good times to do reviews, but risk management should happen frequently.
C: This answer would only be correct if the project has a status meeting just once per month in the project.

 

NEW QUESTION 448
Which of the following are the common mistakes while implementing KRIs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

  • A. Choosing KRIs that has high correlation with the risk
  • B. Choosing KRIs that are incomplete or inaccurate due to unclear specifications
  • C. Choosing KRIs that are difficult to measure
  • D. Choosing KRIs that are not linked to specific risk

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A common mistake when implementing KRIs other than selecting too many KRIs includes choosing KRIs that are:
Not linked to specific risk

Incomplete or inaccurate due to unclear specifications

Too generic

Difficult to aggregate, compare and interpret

Difficult to measure

Incorrect Answers:
B: For ensuring high reliability of the KRI, The indicator must possess a high correlation with the risk and be a good predictor or outcome measure. Hence KRIs are chosen that has high correlation with the risk.

 

NEW QUESTION 449
You are the project manager of RFT project. You have identified a risk that the enterprise's IT system and application landscape is so complex that, within a few years, extending capacity will become difficult and maintaining software will become very expensive. To overcome this risk, the response adopted is re- architecture of the existing system and purchase of new integrated system. In which of the following risk prioritization options would this case be categorized?

  • A. Deferrals
  • B. Contagious risk
  • C. Business case to be made
  • D. Quick win

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is categorized as a Business case to be made because the project cost is very large. The response to be implemented requires quite large investment. Therefore it comes under business case to be made.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It addresses costly risk response to a low risk. But here the response is less costly than that of business case to be made.
B: Quick win is very effective and efficient response that addresses medium to high risk. But in this the response does not require large investments.
D: This is not risk response prioritization option, instead it is a type of risk that happen with the several of the enterprise's business partners within a very short time frame.

 

NEW QUESTION 450
What is the IMMEDIATE step after defining set of risk scenarios?

  • A. Risk management
  • B. Risk mitigation
  • C. Risk monitoring
  • D. Risk analysis

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Once the set of risk scenarios is defined, it can be used for risk analysis. In risk analysis, likelihood and impact of the scenarios are assessed. Important components of this assessment are the risk factors.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk mitigation is the latter step after analyzing risk.
B: Risk monitoring is the latter step after risk analysis and risk mitigation.
C: Risk analysis comes under risk management, therefore management is a generalized term, and is not the best answer for this question.

 

NEW QUESTION 451
The BEST control to mitigate the risk associated with project scope creep is to:

  • A. ensure extensive user involvement
  • B. consult with senior management on a regular basis
  • C. apply change management procedures
  • D. deploy CASE tools in software development

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 452
Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization's risk register?

  • A. Risk ranking
  • B. Risk response
  • C. Risk appetite
  • D. Risk taxonomy

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 453
A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

  • A. identification.
  • B. assessment
  • C. communication.
  • D. treatment.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 454
What are the various outputs of risk response?

  • A. Project management plan and Project document updates
  • B. Explanation:
    The outputs of the risk response planning process are: Risk Register Updates: The risk register is written in detail so that it can be related to the priority ranking and the planned response. Risk Related Contract Decisions: Risk related contract decisions are the decisions to transmit risk, such as services, agreements for insurance, and other items as required. It provides a means for sharing risks. Project Management Plan Updates: Some of the elements of the project management plan updates are: Schedule management plan Cost management plan Quality management plan Procurement management plan Human resource management plan Work breakdown structure Schedule baseline Cost performance baseline Project Document Updates: Some of the project documents that can be updated includes: Assumption log updates Technical documentation updates
  • C. Risk-related contract decisions
  • D. Residual risk
  • E. Risk register updates
  • F. Risk Priority Number

Answer: A,B,C,E

Explanation:
is incorrect. Residual risk is not an output of risk response. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls. It is not feasible to eliminate all risks from an organization. Instead, measures can be taken to reduce risk to an acceptable level. The risk that is left is residual risk. As, Risk = Threat Vulnerabilityand Total risk = Threat Vulnerability Asset Value Residual risk can be calculated with the following formula: Residual Risk = Total Risk - Controls Senior management is responsible for any losses due to residual risk. They decide whether a risk should be avoided, transferred, mitigated or accepted. They also decide what controls to implement. Any loss due to their decisions falls on their sides. Residual risk assessments are conducted after mitigation to determine the impact of the risk on the enterprise. For risk assessment, the effect and frequency is reassessed and the impact is recalculated. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk priority number is not an output for risk response but instead it is done before applying response. Hence it act as one of the inputs of risk response and is not the output of it.

 

NEW QUESTION 455
Which of the following decision tree nodes have probability attached to their branches?

  • A. Event node
  • B. Root node
  • C. Decision node
  • D. End node

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Event nodes represents the possible uncertain outcomes of a risky decision, with at least two nodes to illustrate the positive and negative range of events. Probabilities are always attached to the branches of event nodes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Root node is the starting node in the decision tree, and it has no branches.
C: End node represents the outcomes of risk and decisions and probability is not attached to it.
D: It represents the choice available to the decision maker, usually between a risky choice and its non-risky counterpart. As it represents only the choices available to the decision makers, hence probability is not attached to it.

 

NEW QUESTION 456
Which of the following is NOT the method of Qualitative risk analysis?

  • A. Likelihood-impact matrix
  • B. Scorecards
  • C. Business process modeling (BPM) and simulation
  • D. Attribute analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Business process modeling (BPM) and simulation is a method of Quantitative risk analysis and not Qualitative risk analysis.
The BPM and simulation discipline is an effective method of identifying and quantifying the operational risk in enterprise business processes. It improves business process efficiency and effectiveness.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These three are the methods of Qualitative risk analysis.

 

NEW QUESTION 457
Risk mitigation procedures should include:

  • A. deployment of counter measures.
  • B. buying an insurance policy.
  • C. enterprise architecture implementation.
  • D. acceptance of exposures

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 458
A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?

  • A. Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating
  • B. Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is
  • C. Monitor the databases for abnormal activity
  • D. Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 459
What are the requirements of monitoring risk?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

  • A. Identifying the risk to be monitored
  • B. Information of various stakeholders
  • C. Defining the project's scope
  • D. Preparation of detailed monitoring plan

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
It is important to first understand the risk to be monitored, prepare a detailed plan and define the project's scope for monitoring risk. In the case of a monitoring project, this step should involve process owners, data owners, system custodians and other process stakeholders.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Data regarding stakeholders of the project is not required in any phase of risk monitoring.

 

NEW QUESTION 460
Who is at the BEST authority to develop the priorities and identify what risks and impacts would occur if there were loss of the organization's private information?

  • A. Business process owners
  • B. Internal auditor
  • C. Security management
  • D. External regulatory agencies

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Business process owners are in best position to judge the risks and impact, as they are most knowledgeable concerning their systems. Hence they are most suitable for developing and identifying risks on business.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: Internal auditors, security managers, external regulators would not understand the impact on business to the extent that business owners could. Hence business owner is the best authority.

 

NEW QUESTION 461
You are the project manager of the GHT project. This project will last for 18 months and has a project budget of $567,000. Robert, one of your stakeholders, has introduced a scope change request that will likely have an impact on the project costs and schedule. Robert assures you that he will pay for the extra time and costs associated with the risk event. You have identified that change request may also affect other areas of the project other than just time and cost. What project management component is responsible for evaluating a change request and its impact on all of the project management knowledge areas?

  • A. Configuration management
  • B. Integrated change control
  • C. Project change control system
  • D. Risk analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integrated change control is responsible for evaluating a proposed change and determining its impact on all areas of the project: scope, time, cost, quality, human resources, communication, risk, and procurement.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Configuration management defines the management, control, and documentation of the features and functions of the project's product.
C: Risk analysis is not responsible for reviewing the change aspects for the entire project.
D: The project change control system defines the workflow and approval process for proposed changes to the project scope, time, cost, and contracts.

 

NEW QUESTION 462
Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

  • A. Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)
  • B. Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)
  • C. Cost of control implementation
  • D. Maturity of the enterprise architecture

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 463
When it appears that a project risk is going to happen, what is this term called?

  • A. Contingency response
  • B. Trigger
  • C. Explanation:
    A trigger is a warning sign or a condition that a risk event is likely to occur within the project.
  • D. is incorrect. A contingency response is a pre-planned response for a risk event, such as
    a rollback plan.
  • E. Issue
  • F. is incorrect. Issues are events that come about as a result of risk events. Risks become
    issues only after they have actually occurred.
  • G. Threshold

Answer: B

Explanation:
is incorrect. A threshold is a limit that the risk passes to actually become an issue in the
project.

 

NEW QUESTION 464
Which of the following are the MOST important risk components that must be communicated among all the stakeholders?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

  • A. Current risk management capability
  • B. Expectations from risk management
  • C. Various risk response used in the project
  • D. Status of risk with regard to IT risk

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The broad array of information and the major types of IT risk information that should be communicated are as follows:
Expectations from risk management: They include risk strategy, policies, procedures, awareness

training, uninterrupted reinforcement of principles, etc. This essential communication drives all subsequent efforts on risk management and sets the overall expectations from risk management.
Current risk management capability: This allows monitoring of the status of the risk management

engine in the enterprise. It is a key indicator for effective risk management and has predictive value for how well the enterprise is managing risk and reducing exposure.
Status with regard to IT risk: This describes the actual status with regard to IT risk including information

of risk profile of the enterprise, Key risk indicators (KRIs) to support management reporting on risk, event-loss data, root cause of loss events and options to mitigate risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk response is only communicated to some of the stakeholders not all, as it is irrelevant for them. It is not communicated to the stakeholders of the project like project sponsors, etc.

 

NEW QUESTION 465
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

  • A. A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access
  • B. Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees
  • C. A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented
  • D. The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 466
Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

  • A. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
  • B. Cyber insurance
  • C. Data backups
  • D. Incident response plan

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 467
You are the project manager of your enterprise. While performing risk management, you are given a task to identify where your enterprise stand in certain practice and also to suggest the priorities for improvements. Which of the following models would you use to accomplish this task?

  • A. Fishbone model
  • B. Capability maturity model
  • C. Explanation:
    Capability maturity models are the models that are used by the enterprise to rate itself in terms of the least mature level (having nonexistent or unstructured processes) to the most mature (having adopted and optimized the use of good practices). The levels within a capability maturity model are designed to allow an enterprise to identify descriptions of its current and possible future states. In general, the purpose is to: Identify, where enterprises are in relation to certain activities or practices. Suggest how to set priorities for improvements
  • D. Decision tree model
  • E. Simulation tree model

Answer: B

Explanation:
is incorrect. There is no such model exists in risk management process. Answer:B is incorrect. Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can help the project manager in determining the best risk response. The tool can be used to measure probability, impact, and risk exposure and how the selected risk response can affect the probability and/or impact of the selected risk event. It helps to form a balanced image of the risks andopportunitiesconnected with each possible course of action. This makes them mostly useful for choosing between different strategies, projects, or investment opportunities particularly when the resources are limited. A decision tree is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and utility. Answer:C is incorrect. Fishbone diagrams or Ishikawa diagrams shows the relationships between the causes and effects of problems.

 

NEW QUESTION 468
......


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