CRISC Exam Info and Free Practice Test Professional Quiz Study Materials
Accurate Hot Selling CRISC Exam Dumps 2025 Newly Released
NEW QUESTION # 420
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?
- A. User recertification
- B. User authorization
- C. Change log review
- D. Access log monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
User recertification is the most effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis, as it involves a periodic review and validation of user access rights and privileges by the appropriate authority.
User recertification helps to identify and remove any unnecessary, excessive, or obsolete access rights and privileges that may pose a security risk or violate the principle of least privilege. User recertification also helps to ensure that user access rights and privileges are aligned with the current business needs, roles, and responsibilities of the users.
The other options are not the most effective controls to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis. User authorization is the process of granting or denying access rights and privileges to users based on their identity, role, and credentials, but it does not verify or update the existing access rights and privileges of the users. Change log review is the process of examining and analyzing the records of changes made to the system, configuration, or data, but it does not directly address the user access rights and privileges. Access log monitoring is the process of tracking and auditing the user activities and actions on the system or network, but it does not validate or modify the user access rights and privileges. References = What Is the Principle of Least Privilege and Why is it Important?, Principle of Least Privilege: Definition, Methods & Examples, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
NEW QUESTION # 421
Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?
- A. Increase in mitigating control costs
- B. Increase in risk event likelihood
- C. Increase in risk event impact
- D. Increase in cybersecurity premium
Answer: B
Explanation:
The result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor would be an increase in risk event likelihood. The likelihood of a risk event is influenced by the factors of threat, vulnerability, and exposure. The motivation of a threat actor is a key component of the threat factor, as it reflects the intent and capability of the actor to exploit a vulnerability. Therefore, a higher motivation would imply a higher probability of an attack. An increase in mitigating control costs, risk event impact, or cybersecurity premium are possible consequences of a risk event, but they are not directly affected by the motivation of the threat actor. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 6; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 67.
NEW QUESTION # 422
In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:
- A. Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.
- B. Review and evaluate the risk management program.
- C. Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.
- D. Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The second line of defense provides oversight functions, ensuring that risks and controls are effectively managed. This includes policy enforcement, compliance monitoring, and risk program evaluation, aligning with the organizational risk governance structure as described in the CRISC framework.
NEW QUESTION # 423
Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?
- A. Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution
- B. Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios
- C. Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans
- D. Prioritization for implementing the action plans
Answer: C
Explanation:
The management's primary consideration when approving risk response action plans should be the changes in residual risk after implementing the plans. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. The management should evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and decide whether the residual risk is acceptable or not2. The management should also compare the residual risk with the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives3. The management should ensure that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite, and that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level4.
The other options are not the primary consideration when approving risk response action plans, because:
* Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios is a desirable but not essential criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be5. They can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses6. However, not all risk scenarios are equally likely or relevant, and some risk scenarios may be too complex or improbable to address. Therefore, the ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios is not the primary consideration, but rather a secondary or supplementary one.
* Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution is a practical but not critical criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and applying appropriate measures to modify the risk7. It can involve different strategies, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept the risk8. The ease of implementing the risk treatment solution depends on various factors, such as the availability of resources, the feasibility of the solution, or the cooperation of the stakeholders. However, the ease of implementation is not the primary consideration, but rather a supporting or facilitating one.
* Prioritization for implementing the action plans is a useful but not vital criterion for approving risk response action plans. Prioritization is the process of ranking the action plans according to their importance, urgency, or impact. It can help to allocate the resources, schedule the activities, and monitor the progress of the action plans. However, prioritization is not the primary consideration, but rather a subsequent or follow-up one.
References =
* Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
* What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
* Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
* Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
* Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
* Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
* Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki
* Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
* [Prioritization - CIO Wiki]
NEW QUESTION # 424
Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?
- A. Aligning with industry best practices
- B. Reviewing control objectives
- C. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite
- D. Consulting risk owners
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program is to evaluate KPIs in accordance with risk appetite. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management program, and help monitor and report on the achievement of the risk objectives and outcomes. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite helps to identify the appropriate KPIs, because it helps to align the KPIs with the organization's mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the KPIs reflect the organization's risk tolerance and threshold. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite also helps to communicate and coordinate the KPIs with the organization's stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as effective as evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite, although they may be part of or derived from the KPI identification process. Reviewing control objectives, aligning with industry best practices, and consulting risk owners are all activities that can help to define or refine the KPIs, but they are not the best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter
4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
NEW QUESTION # 425
What should a risk practitioner do NEXT if an ineffective key control is identified on a critical system?
- A. Revalidate the risk assessment.
- B. Escalate to senior management.
- C. Propose acceptance of the risk.
- D. Conduct a gap analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 426
Which of the following is the MOST effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication?
- A. Existence of a blame culture
- B. A false sense of confidence at the top on the degree of actual exposure related to IT and lack of a well- understood direction for risk management from the top down
- C. The perception that the enterprise is trying to cover up known risk from stakeholders
- D. Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Blame culture should be avoided. It is the most effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication. In a blame culture, business units tend to point the finger at IT when projects are not delivered on time or do not meet expectations. In doing so, they fail to realize how the business unit's involvement up front affects project success. In extreme cases, the business unit may assign blame for a failure to meet the expectations that the unit never clearly communicated. Executive leadership must identify and quickly control a blame culture if collaboration is to be fostered throughout the enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
B: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
D: Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies is an inhibitor of effective communication, but is not a prominent as existence of blame culture.
NEW QUESTION # 427
FISMA requires federal agencies to protect IT systems and data. How often should compliance be audited by an external organization?
- A. Quarterly
- B. Never
- C. Annually
- D. Every three years
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation
Explanation:
Inspection of FISMA is required to be done annually. Each year, agencies must have an independent evaluation of their program. The objective is to determine the effectiveness of the program. These evaluations include:
* Testing for effectiveness: Policies, procedures, and practices are to be tested. This evaluation does not test every policy, procedure, and practice. Instead, a representative sample is tested.
* An assessment or report: This report identifies the agency's compliance as well as lists compliance with FISMA. It also lists compliance with other standards and guidelines.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Auditing of compliance by external organization is done annually, not quarterly or every three years.
NEW QUESTION # 428
Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?
- A. Conducting a risk assessment
- B. Reviewing the security audit report
- C. Performing a security control review
- D. Testing in a non-production environment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 429
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?
- A. Users having unauthorized access to data
- B. Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)
- C. Inaccurate record management data
- D. Lack of accountability for data ownership
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 430
Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?
- A. Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls
- B. Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements
- C. Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)
- D. Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 431
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?
- A. Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software
- B. Lack of professional support for open source software
- C. Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software
- D. Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software should be the greatest concern for an organization that uses open source software applications, as it may expose the organization to legal, security, and operational risks. Open source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone, subject to certain conditions and licenses. An organizational policy regarding open source software should define the criteria and procedures for selecting, acquiring, using, and maintaining open source software, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders involved. Lack of reliability, lack of monitoring, and lack of professional support are not the greatest concerns, as they can be addressed by implementing quality assurance, configuration management, and community engagement practices for open source software. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 214; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 214.
NEW QUESTION # 432
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?
- A. Incompatible end-user devices
- B. Incomplete end-user device inventory
- C. Unsupported end-user applications
- D. Multiple end-user device models
Answer: B
Explanation:
The greatest challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices is having an incomplete end-user device inventory. An end-user device inventory is a document that records and tracks all the devices that are owned, used, or managed by the organization's end-users, such as laptops, tablets, smartphones, etc. An end- user device inventory helps to identify and classify the devices based on their type, model, location, owner, status, etc. An end-user device inventory also helps to monitor and control the devices, such as enforcing security policies, applying patches and updates, detecting and resolving issues, etc. Having an incomplete end- user device inventory could lead to a lack of visibility and accountability for the devices, which could increase the risk of data loss, theft, or compromise, as well as the cost and complexity of device management.
The other options are not as challenging as having an incomplete end-user device inventory, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the device management. Unsupported end-user applications, incompatible end-user devices, and multiple end-user device models are all factors that could affect the functionality and compatibility of the devices, but they do not necessarily affect the visibility and accountability of the devices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
NEW QUESTION # 433
Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?
- A. Testing the DLP rule change control process
- B. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers
- C. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers
- D. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers
Answer: B
Explanation:
A data loss prevention (DLP) control is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. A DLP control is used to prevent sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental1. The best way to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data is to test the transmission of credit card numbers. This is a technique to verify that the DLP control can successfully identify and block the credit card data when it is sent or received through various channels, such as email, messaging, or file transfers. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers can help to evaluate the accuracy and reliability of the DLP control, as well as to identify and correct any false positives or false negatives. The other options are not the best ways to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data, although they may be helpful and complementary. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers is a technique to monitor and analyze the DLP control activities and incidents, such as who, what, when, where, and how the data was transferred.
However, reviewing logs is a reactive and passive approach, while testing the transmission is a proactive and active approach. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers is a technique to set up the DLP control rules and policies, such as defining the data patterns, the detection methods, and the response actions.
However, configuring the DLP control is a prerequisite and a preparation step, while testing the transmission is a validation and a verification step. Testing the DLP rule change control process is a technique to ensure that the DLP control rules and policies are updated and maintained in a controlled and coordinated manner, such as obtaining approval, documenting the changes, testing the changes, and communicating the changes. However, testing the DLP rule change control process is a quality and governance step, while testing the transmission is a performance and functionality step. References = What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? | Digital Guardian1; CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1652; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 833
NEW QUESTION # 434
Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?
- A. Data custodian
- B. Internal auditor
- C. Data owner
- D. End user
Answer: A
Explanation:
The data custodian is the person who is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls to protect the data entrusted to them by the data owner. The data custodian is typically a system administrator or a security systems administrator who has the technical skills and access rights to manage the security systems and processes that safeguard the data. The data custodian's responsibilities include, but are not limited to:
Installing, configuring, and updating security systems such as firewalls, anti-virus software, encryption tools, etc. Monitoring network traffic and system logs to detect and respond to security incidents. Conducting regular security assessments and audits to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. Implementing backup and recovery procedures to ensure data availability and integrity. The data custodian works under the direction and guidance of the data owner, who is the person who has the authority and accountability for the data and its use. The data owner defines the data classification, the data retention period, and the data access rights and privileges. The data owner also approves any changes to the security controls or the data itself. The data owner is typically a senior manager or a business unit leader who has the business knowledge and responsibility for the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: Data Classification, pp. 11-131
NEW QUESTION # 435
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?
- A. Control gap analysis
- B. Industry benchmarking
- C. Standard operating procedures
- D. SWOT analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 436
Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors
- A. Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime
- B. Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting
- C. Number of IT support staff available after business hours
- D. Frequency and number of new software releases
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 437
Thomas is a key stakeholder in your project. Thomas has requested several changes to the project scope for the project you are managing.
Upon review of the proposed changes, you have discovered that these new requirements are laden with risks and you recommend to the change control board that the changes be excluded from the project scope. The change control board agrees with you. What component of the change control system communicates the approval or denial of a proposed change request?
- A. Scope change control system
- B. Change log
- C. Integrated change control
- D. Configuration management system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Integrated change control is responsible for facilitating, documenting, and dispersing information on a proposed change to the project scope.
Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project's change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The configuration management system controls and documents changes to the project's product C: The change log documents approved changes in the project scope.
D: The scope change control system controls changes that are permitted to the project scope.
NEW QUESTION # 438
The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:
- A. ensure assets have low residual risk.
- B. define the risk assessment methodology.
- C. account for identified key risk factors.
- D. assess effectiveness of different projects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk register is a tool used to identify, assess, and prioritize risks in an organization. It typically includes a detailed description of each identified risk, an assessment of its likelihood and potential impact, and a plan for managing or mitigating the risk1. A risk register is usually created at the beginning of a project or a process, and is updated regularly throughout the risk management life cycle2.
The main reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to account for identified key risk factors. This means that the risk register helps to:
* Document and track all the relevant risks that may affect the project or the organization, and their sources, causes, and consequences
* Provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk profile and exposure of the project or the organization
* Support the decision-making and prioritization of the risk responses and controls, based on the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization
* Communicate and report the risk information and status to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure transparency and accountability
* Enable the continuous improvement and learning from the risk management process and outcomes3 References = What is a risk register and why is it important?, Purpose of a risk register: Here's what a risk register is used for, Risk Register: A Project Manager's Guide with Examples [2024], Risk Register - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 439
An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?
- A. The controls may not be properly tested
- B. The vendor will not achieve best practices
- C. Lack of a risk-based approach to access control
- D. The vendor will not ensure against control failure
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 440
Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?
- A. Risk likelihood and impact
- B. Inherent risk
- C. Risk velocity
- D. Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds are the most likely elements of a risk register to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite, as they reflect the acceptable levels of risk exposure for the organization. KRI thresholds are the values or ranges that trigger an alert or a response when the actual KRI values deviate from the expected or desired values. KRI thresholds help to:
* Monitor and measure the current risk levels and performance of the IT assets and processes
* Identify and report any risk issues or incidents that may require attention or action
* Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response actions and controls
* Align the risk management activities and decisions with the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance If the management's risk appetite changes, the KRI thresholds may need to be adjusted accordingly to ensure that the risk register reflects the current risk preferences and expectations of the organization.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 217-2181
NEW QUESTION # 441
The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:
- A. assist in the development of a risk profile.
- B. plan awareness programs for business managers.
- C. maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.
- D. evaluate maturity of the risk management process.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the primary reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to evaluate the maturity of the risk management process, as it provides an independent and objective assessment of the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management activities and controls. An internal audit report helps to:
* Identify and evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of the risk management process and its alignment with the organization's objectives and strategy
* Detect and report any gaps, errors, or deficiencies in the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring processes and controls
* Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address the issues or findings in the risk management process
* Communicate and coordinate the audit results and recommendations with the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owners, the senior management, and the board
* Enhance the accountability and transparency of the risk management process and its outcomes References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 223-2241
NEW QUESTION # 442
An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:
- A. reduce the impact of future events
- B. address the root cause
- C. reduce the likelihood of future events
- D. restore availability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to reduce the impact of future events, as it will enable the organization to identify and correct the corrupted files before they cause further damage or loss. A file corruption detection tool is a software that scans and verifies the integrity and validity of the files, and alerts the users or administrators of any anomalies or errors. This helps to minimize the disruption and downtime caused by the data corruption incidents, and to preserve the quality and reliability of the data. Implementing a file corruption detection tool will not reduce the likelihood of future events, as it does not prevent or mitigate the causes or sources of the data corruption incidents. It will not restore availability, as it does not recover or restore the corrupted files, but only detects them. It will not address the root cause, as it does not analyze or eliminate the underlying factors that lead to the data corruption incidents. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control - Question215; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 215.
NEW QUESTION # 443
......
What is the duration of the CRISC Exam
- Format: Multiple choices, multiple answers
- Length of Examination: 4 hours
Get 100% Authentic ISACA CRISC Dumps with Correct Answers: https://www.itexamsimulator.com/CRISC-brain-dumps.html
New Training Course CRISC Tutorial Preparation Guide: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XF1vQG7L6DoO01TsXKPF_VSyaLEamZgk
