Updated Dec-2023 100% Cover Real CDPSE Exam Questions Make Sure You 100% Pass [Q102-Q123]

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Updated Dec-2023 100% Cover Real CDPSE Exam Questions Make Sure You 100% Pass

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Earning the CDPSE certification demonstrates a strong commitment to data privacy and the ability to manage and implement effective privacy solutions. It is an increasingly valuable certification in today's digital age, where data privacy is a critical concern for organizations of all sizes and industries. By passing the CDPSE exam, candidates can enhance their professional credibility and advance their careers in the fields of IT and security.


The CDPSE certification exam covers a range of topics related to data privacy and protection, including privacy governance, risk management, compliance, and incident management. Successful candidates must demonstrate their understanding of privacy laws and regulations, as well as their ability to design and implement privacy policies, processes, and controls that align with industry best practices.


ISACA CDPSE (Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer) certification exam is a new certification program that is designed to validate an individual's knowledge and expertise in data privacy and protection solutions. Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer certification is designed to equip professionals with the knowledge and skills required to manage and protect sensitive data, ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and industry standards.

 

NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following is the best reason for a health organization to use desktop virtualization to implement stronger access control to systems containing patient records?

  • A. Limited functions and capabilities of a secured operating environment
  • B. Monitored network activities for unauthorized use
  • C. Unlimited functionalities and highly secured applications
  • D. Improved data integrity and reduced effort for privacy audits

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following is BEST used to validate compliance with agreed-upon service levels established with a third party that processes personal data?

  • A. Industry benchmarks
  • B. Key performance indicators (KPIS)
  • C. Contractual right to audit
  • D. Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to validate compliance with agreed-upon service levels established with a third party that processes personal data is to have a contractual right to audit, which means that the organization can conduct audits or inspections of the third party's privacy practices, policies, and procedures to verify that they meet the contractual obligations and expectations. A contractual right to audit can also help identify and address any privacy risks or gaps that may arise from the third party's processing of personal data12.
References:
* CDPSE Exam Content Outline, Domain 1 - Privacy Governance (Governance, Management & Risk Management), Task 7: Participate in the management and evaluation of contracts, service levels and practices of vendors and other external parties3.
* CDPSE Review Manual, Chapter 1 - Privacy Governance, Section 1.4 - Third-Party Management4.


NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to complete a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?

  • A. To establish privacy breach response procedures
  • B. To classify personal data
  • C. To comply with consumer regulatory requirements
  • D. To understand privacy risks

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following protocols BEST protects end-to-end communication of personal data?

  • A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • B. Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
  • C. Transport Layer Security Protocol (TLS)
  • D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following should be done FIRST before an organization migrates data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction?

  • A. Encrypt the data while it is being migrated.
  • B. Ensure data loss prevention (DLP) alerts are turned on.
  • C. Conduct a penetration test of the hosted solution.
  • D. Assess the organization's exposure related to the migration.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The best answer is D. Assess the organization's exposure related to the migration.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Before an organization migrates data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction, it should first assess its exposure related to the migration. This means that the organization should identify and evaluate the potential risks and benefits of moving its data to the cloud, taking into account the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations and implications of doing so.
Some of the factors that the organization should consider in its assessment are:
* The nature, sensitivity, and value of the data being migrated, and the impact of its loss, theft, corruption, or disclosure on the organization and its stakeholders.
* The security, privacy, and compliance requirements and standards that apply to the data in each jurisdiction where it is stored, processed, or accessed, and the differences or conflicts among them.
* The trustworthiness, reliability, and reputation of the cloud service provider and its subcontractors, and the terms and conditions of their service level agreements (SLAs) and contracts.
* The availability, performance, scalability, and cost-effectiveness of the cloud-hosted solution compared to the on-premise solution, and the trade-offs involved.
* The technical feasibility and complexity of migrating the data from the on-premise solution to the cloud-hosted solution, and the tools and methods needed to do so.
* The organizational readiness and capability to manage the change and transition from the on-premise solution to the cloud-hosted solution, and the training and support needed for the staff and users.
By conducting a thorough assessment of its exposure related to the migration, the organization can make an informed decision about whether to proceed with the migration or not, or under what conditions or modifications. The assessment can also help the organization to plan and implement appropriate measures and controls to mitigate or avoid any negative consequences and enhance or maximize any positive outcomes of the migration.
Ensuring data loss prevention (DLP) alerts are turned on (A), encrypting the data while it is being migrated (B), and conducting a penetration test of the hosted solution are all good practices to protect data privacy and security when migrating data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction. However they are not the first steps that should be done before the migration. They are more relevant during or after the migration process. They also do not address other aspects of exposure related to the migration, such as legal, regulatory, contractual, or ethical issues.
References:
* Data Migration: On-Premise to Cloud - 10 Steps to Success1
* 8 Best Practices for On-Premises to Cloud Migration2
* 5 Steps for a Successful On-Premise to Cloud Migration3
* Extend on-premises data solutions to the cloud4
* On Premise to Cloud migration tool5


NEW QUESTION # 107
Data collected by a third-party vendor and provided back to the organization may not be protected according to the organization's privacy notice. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?

  • A. Obtain independent assurance of current practices.
  • B. Validate contract compliance.
  • C. Review the privacy policy.
  • D. Re-assess the information security requirements.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following MUST be available to facilitate a robust data breach management response?

  • A. An inventory of affected individuals and systems
  • B. Best practices to obfuscate data for processing and storage
  • C. An inventory of previously impacted individuals
  • D. Lessons learned from prior data breach responses

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following describes a user's "right to be forgotten"?

  • A. The individual objects despite legitimate grounds for processing.
  • B. The data is no longer required for the purpose originally collected.
  • C. The data is being used to comply with legal obligations or the public interest.
  • D. The individual's legal residence status has recently changed.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 110
A project manager for a new data collection system had a privacy impact assessment (PIA) completed before the solution was designed. Once the system was released into production, an audit revealed personal data was being collected that was not part of the PIA What is the BEST way to avoid this situation in the future?

  • A. Document personal data workflows in the product life cycle
  • B. Require management approval of changes to system architecture design.
  • C. Conduct a privacy post-implementation review.
  • D. Incorporate privacy checkpoints into the secure development life cycle

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Incorporating privacy checkpoints into the secure development life cycle (SDLC) is the best way to avoid collecting personal data that was not part of the privacy impact assessment (PIA). Privacy checkpoints are stages in the SDLC where privacy requirements and risks are reviewed and validated, and any changes or deviations from the original PIA are identified and addressed. Privacy checkpoints help ensure that privacy is embedded throughout the system design and development, and that any changes are documented and approved.
References:
* ISACA, CDPSE Review Manual 2021, Chapter 3: Privacy by Design, Section 3.2: Privacy Engineering, p. 97-98.


NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following is the BEST way to protect personal data in the custody of a third party?

  • A. Have corporate counsel monitor privacy compliance.
  • B. Add privacy-related controls to the vendor audit plan.
  • C. Require the third party to provide periodic documentation of its privacy management program.
  • D. Include requirements to comply with the organization's privacy policies in the contract.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
In GDPR parlance, organizations that use third-party service providers are often, but not always, considered data controllers, which are entities that determine the purposes and means of the processing of personal data, which can include directing third parties to process personal data on their behalf. The third parties that process data for data controllers are known as data processors.
The best way to protect personal data in the custody of a third party is to include requirements to comply with the organization's privacy policies in the contract. This means that the organization should specify the terms and conditions of data processing, such as the purpose, scope, duration, and security measures, and ensure that they are consistent with the organization's privacy policies and applicable privacy regulations. The contract should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties, such as data controller and data processor, and establish mechanisms for monitoring, reporting, auditing, and resolving any issues or incidents related to data privacy. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 41


NEW QUESTION # 112
When contracting with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider, which of the following is the MOST important contractual requirement to ensure data privacy at service termination?

  • A. Removal of customer data
  • B. De-identification of customer data
  • C. Encryption of customer data
  • D. Destruction of customer data

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
When contracting with a SaaS provider, it is important to ensure that the provider will remove all customer data from their systems and storage devices at the end of the service contract. This will prevent any unauthorized access, use, or disclosure of the customer data by the provider or third parties after the service termination. Removal of customer data means that the data are permanently erased and cannot be recovered or restored by any means.
References:
* ISACA, Data Privacy Audit/Assurance Program, Control Objective 9: Data Disposal, p. 16-171
* ISACA, CDPSE Review Manual 2021, Chapter 4: Privacy Incident Response, Section 4.2: Data Disposal and Destruction, p. 151-152.


NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following BEST supports an organization's efforts to create and maintain desired privacy protection practices among employees?

  • A. Skills training programs
  • B. Code of conduct principles
  • C. Awareness campaigns
  • D. Performance evaluations

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following tracking technologies associated with unsolicited targeted advertisements presents the GREATEST privacy risk?

  • A. Beacon-based tracking
  • B. Radio frequency identification (RFID)
  • C. Online behavioral tracking
  • D. Website cookies

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 115
An organization uses analytics derived from archived transaction data to create individual customer profiles for customizing product and service offerings. Which of the following is the IT privacy practitioner's BEST recommendation?

  • A. Implement strong access controls.
  • B. Encrypt data at rest.
  • C. Discontinue the creation of profiles.
  • D. Anonymize personal data.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 116
Which party should data subject contact FIRST if they believe their personal information has been collected and used without consent?

  • A. Data protection authorities
  • B. Outside privacy counsel
  • C. The organization's chief privacy officer (CPO)
  • D. Privacy rights advocate

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The data subject should contact the organization's chief privacy officer (CPO) first if they believe their personal information has been collected and used without consent. The CPO is the senior executive who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the organization's privacy vision, strategy, and program. The CPO oversees the development and implementation of privacy policies, procedures, standards, and controls, and ensures that they align with the organization's business objectives and legal obligations. The CPO also leads the privacy governance structure, such as the privacy steering committee, and coordinates with other stakeholders, such as the data protection authorities, the privacy rights advocates, and the outside privacy counsel, to ensure that privacy is integrated into all aspects of the organization's operations. The CPO is the primary point of contact for data subjects who have any questions, complaints, or requests regarding their personal information, and who can address their concerns and resolve their issues in a timely and effective manner. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 21


NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a data use policy?

  • A. The reason for collecting and using personal data
  • B. The requirements for collecting and using personal data
  • C. The length of time personal data will be retained
  • D. The method used to delete or destroy personal data

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A data use policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for how personal data are collected, used, stored, shared and deleted by an organization. It is an important part of data governance and compliance, as it helps to ensure that personal data are handled in a lawful, fair and transparent manner, respecting the rights and preferences of data subjects. A data use policy should include the requirements for collecting and using personal data, such as the legal basis, the purpose, the scope, the consent, the data minimization, the accuracy, the security and the accountability. These requirements help to establish the legitimacy and necessity of data processing activities, and to prevent unauthorized or excessive use of personal data.
References:
* ISACA Privacy Notice & Usage Disclosures, section 2.1: "We collect Personal Information from you when you provide it to us directly or through a third party who has assured us that they have obtained your consent."
* Chapter Privacy Policy - Singapore Chapter - ISACA, section 2: "We will collect your personal data in accordance with the PDPA either directly from you or your authorized representatives, and/or through our third party service providers."
* Data Minimization-A Practical Approach - ISACA, section 2: "Enterprises may only collect as much data as are necessary for the purposes defined at the time of collection, which may also be set out in a privacy notice (sometimes referred to as a privacy statement, a fair processing statement or a privacy policy)."
* Establishing Enterprise Roles for Data Protection - ISACA, section 3: "Data governance is typically implemented in organizations through policies, guidelines, tools and access controls."


NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following vulnerabilities is MOST effectively mitigated by enforcing multi-factor authentication to obtain access to personal information?

  • A. End users using weak passwords
  • B. End users forgetting their passwords
  • C. Vulnerabilities existing in authentication pages
  • D. Organizations using weak encryption to transmit data

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following is the BEST practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media?

  • A. Data encryption
  • B. Data scrambling
  • C. Data masking
  • D. Data sanitization

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The best practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media is B. Data sanitization.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Data sanitization is the process of permanently and irreversibly erasing or destroying the data on a storage device or media, such as a hard drive, a USB drive, a CD/DVD, etc. Data sanitization ensures that the data cannot be recovered or reconstructed by any means, even by using specialized software or hardware tools.
Data sanitization is also known as data wiping, data erasure, data destruction, or data disposal.
Data sanitization is the best practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it prevents unauthorized access, disclosure, theft, or misuse of the sensitive or confidential data that may be stored on the media. Data sanitization also helps to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for data protection and privacy, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), etc.
There are different methods and techniques for data sanitization, depending on the type and format of the storage device or media. Some of the common methods are:
* Overwriting: Overwriting replaces the existing data on the device or media with random or meaningless data, such as zeros, ones, or patterns. Overwriting can be done multiple times to increase the level of security and assurance. Overwriting is suitable for magnetic media, such as hard disk drives (HDDs) or tapes.
* Degaussing: Degaussing exposes the device or media to a strong magnetic field that disrupts and destroys the magnetic structure and alignment of the data. Degaussing renders the device or media unusable and unreadable. Degaussing is suitable for magnetic media, such as hard disk drives (HDDs) or tapes.
* Physical Destruction: Physical destruction involves applying physical force or damage to the device or media that breaks it into small pieces or shreds it. Physical destruction can be done by using mechanical tools, such as shredders, crushers, drills, hammers, etc., or by using thermal methods, such as incineration, melting, etc. Physical destruction is suitable for any type of media, such as hard disk drives (HDDs), solid state drives (SSDs), USB drives, CDs/DVDs, etc.
Data encryption (A) is not a good practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it does not erase or destroy the data on the media. Data encryption only transforms the data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a key or a password. However, if the key or password is lost, stolen, compromised, or guessed by an attacker, the data can still be decrypted and exposed. Data encryption is more suitable for protecting data in transit or at rest, but not for disposing data.
Data scrambling is not a good practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it does not erase or destroy the data on the media. Data scrambling only rearranges the order of the bits or bytes of the data to make it appear random or meaningless. However, if the algorithm or pattern of scrambling is known or discovered by an attacker, the data can still be unscrambled and restored. Data scrambling is more suitable for obfuscating data for testing or debugging purposes, but not for disposing data.
Data masking (D) is not a good practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it does not erase or destroy the data on the media. Data masking only replaces some parts of the data with fictitious or anonymized values to hide its true identity or meaning. However, if the original data is still stored somewhere else or if the masking technique is weak or reversible by an attacker, the data can still be unmasked and revealed. Data masking is more suitable for protecting data in use or in analysis, but not for disposing data.
References:
* What Is Data Sanitization?1
* How to securely erase hard drives (HDDs) and solid state drives (SSDs)2
* Secure Data Disposal & Destruction: 6 Methods to Follow3


NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following should be used to address data kept beyond its intended lifespan?

  • A. Data normalization
  • B. Data security
  • C. Data minimization
  • D. Data anonymization

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 121
To ensure effective management of an organization's data privacy policy, senior leadership MUST define:

  • A. the scope and responsibilities of the data owner.
  • B. metrics and outcomes recommended by external agencies.
  • C. roles and responsibilities of the person with oversights.
  • D. training and testing requirements for employees handling personal data.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Senior leadership must define the roles and responsibilities of the person with oversight, who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the data privacy policy and applicable laws and regulations. This person may also be known as the data protection officer, the privacy officer, or the chief privacy officer, depending on the organization and jurisdiction. The person with oversight should have the authority, resources, and independence to perform their duties effectively.
References:
* ISACA, CDPSE Review Manual 2021, Chapter 2: Privacy Governance, Section 2.1: Privacy Governance Framework, p. 35-36.
* ISACA, Data Privacy Audit/Assurance Program, Control Objective 1: Data Privacy Governance, p. 4-51


NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is the GREATEST obstacle to conducting a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?

  • A. Conducting a PIA requires significant funding and resources.
  • B. The organization lacks knowledge of PIA methodology.
  • C. PIAs need to be performed many times in a year.
  • D. The value proposition of a PIA is not understood by management.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 123
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